BIOLOGY K-CET 2022- DETAILED ANSWER.pdf - Office3

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CREATIVE LEARNING CLASSES, KARKALA DEPARTMENT OF BIOLOGY K-CET DETAILED SOLUTION -2022 SUBJECT CODE – B VERSION CODE- D1 1. Silencing of specific mRNA in RNAi is by (A) ssDNA (B) SSRNA (C) dsDNA (D) dsRNA Ans: (D) Explanation: RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. This method involves silencing of a specific mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA (silencing). NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 209 2. Cry- IAC effectively controls, (A) Root nematode (B) Cotton bollworms (C) Ring worm (D) Corn borer Ans: (B) Explanation: The toxin is coded by a gene cryIAc named cry. There are a number of them, for example, the proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc and cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms, that of cryIAb controls corn borer. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 209 3. ADA deficiency can be cured by (A) Kidney Transplantation (B) Bone- marrow Transplantation (C) Heart Transplantation (D) Liver Transplantation Ans: (B) Explanation: In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by bone marrow transplantation; in others it can be treated by enzyme replacement therapy, in which functional ADA is given to the patient by injection. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 211 4. Average natality rate in our village is 25, average mortality is 24, immigration 2 and emigration 3 and the net increase in population is: (A) 10 (B) 0 (C) 27 (D) 5 Ans: (B) Explanation: If N is the population density at time t, then its density at time t +1 is Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I) – (D + E)] From the above equation it is clear that, population density will increase if the number of births plus the number of immigrants (B + I) is more than the number of deaths plus the number of emigrants (D + E). So, (B+I) = (25+2) = 27 and (D+E) = (24+3) = 27 Thus, 27-27=0. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 229 5. The term “Molecular Scissors” refers to (A) Restriction enzyme (B) Polymerase – I (C) Taq polymerase (D) Polymerase – II Ans: (A) Explanation: The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of the so-called ‘molecular scissors’– restriction enzymes. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 194-195 6. What does the sample of given base sequence represent? 5 - GAATTC- 3 3 - CTTAAG- 5 HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI (A) Completion of replication (B) Initiator codon at 5 end (C) Palindromic sequence (D) Deletion mutation Ans: (C) Explanation: The palindrome in DNA is a sequence of base pairs that reads same on the two strands when orientation of reading is kept the same. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 197 7. Gel electrophoresis is used for (A) Separation of DNA fragments according to their size. (B) Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors. (C) Cutting of DNA into fragments. (D) Isolation of DNA molecule. Ans: (A) Explanation: The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA. These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 198 8. An antibiotic resistance gene in a vector usually helps in the selection of (A) Non - recombinant cells (B) Competent cells (C) Non - competent cells (D) Transformed cells Ans: (D) Explanation: Antibiotic resistance gene helps in selecting the transformants. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 199 9. The given graph represents (A) Population growth (B) Enzyme activity (C) Species area relationship (D) Growth of organisms Ans: (C) Explanation: Figure 15.2 Showing species area relationship. Note that on log scale the relationship becomes linear. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 262 10. Cuscuta is an example of (A) Ectoparasitism (B) Broad Parasitism (C) Predation (D) Endo parasitism Ans: (A) Explanation: Cuscuta, a parasitic plant that is commonly found growing on hedge plants, has lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution. It derives its nutrition from the host plant which it parasitises. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 236 11. Particulates of _________ size pose greatest risk to human health. (A) Less than 3.5 micrometers in diameter (B) Less than 2.5 micrometers in diameter (C) Less than 7.5 micrometers in diameter (D) Less than 4.5 micrometers in diameter Ans: (B) HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI Explanation: According to Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health. These fine particulates can be inhaled deep into the lungs and can cause breathing and respiratory symptoms, irritation, inflammations and damage to the lungs and premature deaths. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 271 12. Maintenance of constant internal environment is called as (A) Thermoregulation (B) Metastasis (C) Osmoregulation (D) Homeostasis Ans: (D) Explanation: Maintaining the constancy of its internal environment in an organisms is a process called homeostasis. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 223 13. The animals which are active during day time: (A) Vesporal (B) Diurnal (C) Cresporal (D) Auroral Ans: (B) Explanation: For many animals too, light is important in that they use the diurnal and seasonal variations in light intensity and duration (photoperiod) as cues for timing their foraging, reproductive and migratory activities. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 222 14. Which of the following statements is incorrect related to biomes? (A) High temperature and minimum rainfall help to form grasslands. (B) Variation in temperature and mean precipitation (C) Low temperature and less rainfall is a characteristics of Tundra biomes (D) More rainfall and low temperature is the characteristics of deserts. Ans: (D) Explanation: Deserts are characterized by low humidity, low annual rainfall and an overall moisture deficit. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 220 15. The amount of Photosynthetically active radiation captured by plants is (A) 60-70 percent (B) 20-30 percent (C) 12-20 percent (D) 2-10 percent Ans: (D) Explanation: Of the incident solar radiation less than 50 per cent of it is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR). Plants capture only 2-10 per cent of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living world. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 245 16. Which of the following plant is used to extract Colchicine? (A) Asparagus (B) Colchicum (C) Tulip (D) Aloe Ans: (B) Explanation: Many plants belonging to this family are good ornamentals (tulip, Gloriosa), source of medicine (Aloe), vegetables (Asparagus), and colchicine (Colchicum autumnale). NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 81 17. Rows of S-shaped setae in the body of earthworm are resent in all the segments, except (A) The first, last and clitellum (B) The last segment (C) The first segment (D) The first and last segment Ans: (A) Explanation: In each body segment, except the first, last and clitellum, there are rows of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pits in the middle of each segment. Setae can be extended or retracted. Their principal role is in locomotion. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 107 HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI 18. Cell theory was formulated by (A) Schleiden and Robert Brown (B) Schleiden and Schwann (C) Schwann and Robert Brown (D) Robert Hook and Robert Brown Ans: (B) Explanation: Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 126 19. The type of Polysaccharide present in a cotton fibre (A) Cellulose (B) Starch (C) Glycogen (D) Insulin Ans: (A) Explanation: Plant cell walls are made of cellulose. Paper made from plant pulp and cotton fibre is cellulosic. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 149 20. Enzyme involved in crossing over (A) Endonuclease (B) Recombinase (C) Ligase (D) Polymerase Ans: (B) Explanation: Crossing over is also an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is called recombinase. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 168 21. Kranz anatomy can be seen in (A) Pea (B) Tomato (C) Maize (D) Potato Ans: (C) Explanation: You may like to cut a section of the leaves of C4 plants – maize or sorghum – to observe the Kranz anatomy and the distribution of mesophyll cells. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 218 22. Respiratory quotient of glucose is (A) 0.9 (B) 0 (C) 1.0 (D) 0.7 Ans: (C) Explanation: When carbohydrates are used as substrate and are completely oxidised, the RQ will be 1, because equal amounts of CO2 and O2 are evolved and consumed, respectively, as shown in the equation below: NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 236 23. A person suddenly starts coughing while swallowing food. This coughing would have been due to improper movement of (A) Neck (B) Epiglottis (C) Tongue (D) Diaphragm Ans: (B) Explanation: A cartilaginous flap called epiglottis prevents the entry of food into the glottis – opening of the wind pipe – during swallowing. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 258 24. Binominal nomenclature is introduced by (A) Bentham and Hooker (B) Carolus Linnaeus (C) John Ray (D) Lamarck Ans: (B) Explanation: This system of providing a name with two components is called Binomial nomenclature. This naming system given by Carolus Linnaeus is being practised by biologists all over the world. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 6 25. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is caused by HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI (A) Virus (B) Viroids (C) Fungi (D) Prions Ans: (D) Explanation: The most notable diseases caused by prions are bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) commonly called mad cow disease in cattle and its analogous variant Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans. Prions consisting of abnormally folded protein. It is similar in size to viruses. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 27 26. Phycoerythrin and Floridean starch us found in (A) Brown algae (B) Blue-green algae (C) Red algae (D) Green algae Ans: (C) Explanation: In red algae the food is stored as floridean starch which is very similar to amylopectin and glycogen in structure. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 33 27. Different types of respiratory organs like gills, book gills, book lungs and trachea are present in (A) Arthropods (B) Sponges (C) Annelids (D) Molluscs Ans: (A) Explanation: In Arthropoda respiratory organs are gills, book gills, book lungs or tracheal system. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 53 28. An example of dioecious plant: (A) Mango (B) Cucurbita (C) Papaya (D) Coconut Ans: (C) Explanation: Papaya is the diecious plant. Dioecious plants are having unisexual flowers. Male flower bearing plants are called staminate and female flower bearing plants are called pistillate. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 11 29. Stalk of the Stamen is: (A) Petiole (B) Filament (C) Peduncle (D) Pedicel Ans: (B) Explanation: Two parts of a typical stamen – the long and slender stalk called the filament, and the terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 21 30. The ovule of angiosperm is technically known as: (A) Megaspore mother cell (B) Megasporangium (C) Megaspore (D) Megasporophyll Ans: (B) Explanation: Megasporangium arising from the placenta, commonly called ovules. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 25 31. Typical mature embryosac of angiosperm is (A) 7 nucleated 8 celled structure (B) 8 nucleated 8 celled structure (C) 8 nucleated 1 celled structure (D) 8 nucleated 7 celled structure Ans: (D) Explanation: A typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, consist of 8-nucleate is 7-celled. 3 antipodal cells with each nucleus (at the chalazal end), 1 central cell with 2 nuclei and 3 cells egg apparatus (2 synergids and 1 egg cell at the micropylar end with each nucleus) NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 27 32. One of the 2000 years old viable seed, discovered during the archeological excavation at King Herold’s near dead sea. (A) Maize (B) Sunflower (C) Lupin (D) Phoenix dactylifera Ans: (D) HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI Explanation: A recent record of 2000 years old viable seed is of the date palm, Phoenix dactylifera discovered during the archaeological excavation at King Herod’s palace near the Dead Sea. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 38 33. The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum as it helps to (A) Maintain the low temperature (B) Store sperm (C) Regulates hormone secretion (D) Release sperm Ans: (A) Explanation: The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2–2.5o C lower than the normal internal body temperature) necessary for spermatogenesis. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 43 34. Identify the odd one form the following: (A) Infundibulum (B) Fimbriae (C) Isthmus (D) Labia minora Ans: (D) Explanation: Each fallopian tube has a part closer to the ovary is the funnel-shaped infundibulum. The edges of the infundibulum possess finger-like projections called fimbriae, which help in collection of the ovum after ovulation. The infundibulum leads to a wider part of the oviduct called ampulla. The last part of the oviduct, isthmus has a narrow lumen and it joins the uterus. The labia minora are paired folds of tissue under the labia majora. Labia minora is the part of external genitalia in female. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 45-46 35. In which month of gestation, the first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on its head is observed? (A) 5th Month (B) 1st Month (C) 8th Month (D) 4th Month Ans: (A) Explanation: The first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during the fifth month of gestation. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 54 36. The most abundant type of WBC cells (A) Eosinophils (B) Basophils (C) Monocytes (D) Neutrophils Ans: (D) Explanation: Neutrophils are the most abundant cells (60-65 per cent) of the total WBCs and basophils are the least (0.5-1 per cent) among them. Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 per cent) are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign organisms entering the body. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 279 37. Filtration of blood during urine formation takes place in (A) Collecting duct (B) DCT (C) Glomerulus (D) PCT Ans: (C) Explanation: The first step in urine formation is the filtration of blood, which is carried out by the glomerulus and is called glomerular filtration. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 293 38. Corpus Callosum connects the (A) Cerebrum and cerebellum (B) Two lobes of cerebellum (C) Spinal cord with the brain (D) Two cerebral hemispheres Ans: (D) Explanation: A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves, which are termed as the left and right cerebral hemispheres. The hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. NCERT I PU PAGE NO: 321 HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI 39. Menstrual cycle is exhibited by: (A) Apes (B) Cow (C) Tiger (D) Rat Ans: (A) Explanation: The females of placental mammals exhibit cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive phase. In non-primate mammals like cows, sheep, rats, deers, dogs, tiger, etc., such cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle where as in primates (monkeys, apes, and humans) it is called menstrual cycle. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 9 40. The first human like being is (A) Homo sapiens (B) Homo erectus (C) Homo menthus (D) Homo habilis Ans: (D) Explanation: Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650-800cc. They probably did not eat meat. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 140 41. XO type of sex determination and XY type of sex determination are the examples of (A) Male Homogamety (B) Male Heterogamety (C) Female Homogamety (D) Female Heterogamety Ans: (B) Explanation: In two types of sex determining mechanisms, i.e., XO type and XY type cases, males produce two different types of gametes, (a) either with or without X-chromosome or (b) some gametes with X- chromosome and some with Y-chromosome. Such types of sex determination mechanism is designated to be the example of male heterogamety. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 86 42. Example for Non-Mendelian disorder: (A) Thalassemia (B) Haemophilia (C) Cystic fibrosis (D) Down’s syndrome Ans: (D) Explanation: Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by alteration or mutation in the single gene. (A), (B) and (C) are the examples for Mendelian Disorders. But the chromosomal disorders (Non-Mendelian disorders) on the other hand are caused due to absence or excess or abnormal arrangement of one or more chromosomes. Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, Klinefelter’s syndrome are common examples of chromosomal disorders or Non-Mendelian disorder. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 89, 92 43. Gynecomastia is a symptom of (A) Turner’s syndrome (B) Down’s syndrome (C) Cri-du-chat syndrome (D) Kline Felter’s syndrome Ans: (D) Explanation: Klinefelter’s Syndrome is caused due to the presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY. Such an individual has overall masculine development, however, the feminine development (development of breast, i.e., Gynaecomastia) is also expressed. Such individuals are sterile. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 92 44. The affected male in the pedigree chart is symbolized by: Ans: (A) HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI Explanation: NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 88 45. The given diagram represents: (A) Nucleosome (B) Chromosome (C) Mesosome (D) Ribosome Ans: (A) Explanation: The negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged histone octamer to form a structure called nucleosome. A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 99 46. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta? (A) Progestogen (B) hCG (C) FSH (D) Relaxin Ans: (C) Explanation: Placenta also acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), human placental lactogen (hPL), estrogens, progestogens, etc. In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the ovary. Let us remember that hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy. FSH is produced by pituitary gland. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 53 47. Which of the following is correctly matched? (A) Bulbil-Agave (B) Conidia-Hydra (C) Spores-Sponge (D) Gemmules-Amoeba HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI Ans: (A) Explanation: Agave – Bulbil Penicillium – Conidia Sponge – Gemmules Amoeba – Binary fission Hydra – Bud NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 7 48. The technique advised by a doctor to overcome the problem of infertility: (A) RCH (B) MTP (C) RTI (D) ART Ans: (D) Explanation: The couples could be assisted to have children through certain special techniques commonly known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART). NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 64 49. Amniocentesis is a process to: (A) To grow cell on culture medium (B) Determine any disease of heart (C) Determine the sex of the foetus (D) Know about the disease of brain Ans: (C) Explanation: A dangerous trend is the misuse of amniocentesis to determine the sex of the unborn child. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 58/62 50. Identify the most infectious and fatal type of malarial parasite: (A) Plasmodium falciparum (B) Plasmodium vivax (C) Plasmodium ovale (D) Plasmodium malaria Ans: (A) Explanation: Malignant malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is the most serious one and can even be fatal. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 147 51. The type of antibodies produced during the allergic reaction (A) Ig G (B) Ig A (C) Ig M (D) Ig E Ans: (D) Explanation: The exaggerated response of the immune system to certain antigens present in the environment is called allergy. The substances to which such an immune response is produced are called allergens. The antibodies produced to these are of IgE type. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 153 52. One of the side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females (A) Cirrhosis of liver (B) Loss of memory (C) Masculinisation (D) Hallucination Ans: (C) Explanation: The side-effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include masculinisation (features like males), increased aggressiveness, mood swings, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles, excessive hair growth on the face and body, enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 162 53. Which one of the following is an opiate narcotic? (A) Amphetamines (B) Barbiturates (C) LSD (D) Morphine Ans: (D) Explanation: Opioids are the drugs, which bind to specific opioid receptors present in our central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. Heroin, commonly called smack is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline compound. This is obtained by acetylation of morphine (Figure 8.7), which HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI is extracted from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum (Figure 8.8). Generally taken by snorting and injection, heroin is a depressant and slows down body functions. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 158-159 54. The large holes in 'Swiss-Cheese' are made by a (A) Bacterium producing a large amount of CO₂ (B) Machine (C) Fungus that releases a lot of gases during metabolic activities (D) Bacterium that produces methane gas Ans: (A) Explanation: The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of CO2 by a bacterium named Propionibacterium sharmanii. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 181 55. Which vitamin is increased by 'LAB' in curd? (A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin C (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin B Ans: (A) Explanation: During growth of Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) produce acids that coagulate and partially digest the milk proteins thus converting milk to curd, which also improves its nutritional quality by increasing vitamin B12. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 181 56. Enzyme which is useful to remove the oily stains in laundry? (A) Amylase (B) Renin (C) Lipase (D) Protease Ans: (C) Explanation: Lipases are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from the laundry. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 183 57. DNA replicates semi conservatively was first shown in: (A) Plants (B) Escherichia coli (C) Higher animals (D) Human cell Ans: (B) Explanation: It is now proven that DNA replicates semi conservatively. It was shown first in Escherichia coli and subsequently in higher organisms, such as plants and human cells. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 104 58. A series of experiments were conducted by Frederick Griffith in 1928, on transforming principle with (A) Salmonella typhimurium (B) Escherichia coil (C) Streptococcus pneumoniae (D) Bacillus thuringiensis Ans: (C) Explanation: In 1928, Frederick Griffith, in a series of experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae (bacterium responsible for pneumonia). NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 100 59. The number of codons effective in coding twenty amino acids: (A) 64 B) 61 (C) 20 (D) 32 Ans: (B) Explanation: 61 codons code for amino acids and other 3 codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not code for any amino acids, so they are considered as stop codons. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 112 60. Which aspect forms the basis of DNA finger-printing? (A) The Satellite DNA showing high degree of repetition in DNA segments. (B) The ratio of purines and pyrimidines present in DNA. HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI (C) The amount of DNA found in samples of blood, saliva and skin. (D) The Sequence of DNA present in the ridges and grooves of finger-prints. Ans: (A) Explanation: DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as repetitive DNA, because in these sequences, a small stretch of DNA is repeated many times. These sequences are called satellite DNA. The satellite DNA sequence show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting. NCERT II PU PAGE NO: 121 DEPARTMENT OF BIOLOGY ❖ Mr. Ranjith Shetty ❖ Dr. Adam Shaik ❖ Mr. N Ravikumar ❖ Mr. Lohith S K ❖ Mrs. Asha K L ❖ Ms. Shilpa ❖ Mr. Kuldeep K R CREATIVE EDUCATION FOUNDATION MOODBIDRI (R) WEBSITE: www.creativeedu.in Phone No: 9019844492 HKS P U COLLEGE, HASSAN CREATIVE P U COLLEGE, KARKALA CREATIVE P U COLLEGE UDUPI