AWS Certified Security Specialty (SCS-C02) Exam Questions 2026 AWS Certified Security Specialty (SCS-C02) Questions 2026 Contains 1100+ exam questions to pass the exam in first attempt. SkillCertPro offers real exam questions for practice for all major IT certifications. For a full set of 1150 questions. Go to https://skillcertpro.c om/product/aws - certified - security - specialty - scs - c02 - exam - questions/ SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better. It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam. SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks. You will get life time access and life time free updates SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt. Below are the free 10 sample questions. Question 1: To prevent common AWS resource misconfigurations like unencrypted EBS volumes and the use of outdated access keys, which service can monitor these configurations? A. Use Trusted Advisor B. Use Config C. Use Inspector D. Use Guard Duty Answer: B Explanation: Config service records and evaluates configurations of your AWS resources. It can detect drifts from the baseline configuration that you define and automate remediation. The trusted advisor is used for benchmarking with AWS best practices; if you subscribe to business and enterprise support, the trusted advisor also publishes the findings as CloudWatch Events. Inspector is used for monitoring your EC2 instances. Guard Duty is a managed threat detection service. Question 2: For monitoring server and webserver logs for security events, which service can consolidate and monitor logs from multiple servers? A. Use CloudWatch Log consolidate and monitor logs B. Use CloudWatch Events to consolidate and monitor logs C. Use S3 to consolidate and monitor logs in the server Answer: A Explanation: CloudWatch Logs is a convenient place to consolidate, query, and act on your log entries. You can attach a metric filter to the log group to look for events of interest, and publish the metrics to CloudWatch for alarms. S3 is a good place to consolidate logs. However, you need to write and perform additional integration to process the logs. CloudWatch Events is generally not used for the consolidation of log files. Events in the event bus are temporary and are meant for immediate consumption. There is a demo coming up later on how to use CloudWatch Agent. See the related lecture Question 3: Where can a policy be implemented to enforce compliance across all accounts, prohibiting the use of certain AWS services that collect and store customer data? A. Resource Access Manager B. Single Sign-on C. AWS Organizations D. Identity and Access Management Answer: C Explanation: AWS Organizations provide central governance and management across accounts. You can use Service Control Policies to limit or grant access to member accounts. Using Organizations, you can also opt-out of AI services that collect and store customer data. RAM is used for sharing AWS resources. IAM is for managing identities and permissions. Single sign-on is a cloud-based single sign-on service. Question 4: You have configured two inbound rules in an AWS Security Group for Port 80 (HTTP): Rule 1: Allow inbound traffic on port 80 from a specific IP address (203.0.113.25/32). Rule 2: Allow inbound traffic on port 80 from any IP address (0.0.0.0/0). What is the combined effect of these two rules? A.Port 80 will only be accessible from the specific IP address (203.0.113.25). B.Port 80 will be accessible from any IP address (0.0.0.0/0). C.Port 80 will be denied for all IP addresses because of conflicting rules. D.Port 80 access will be limited to AWS internal IPs only. Answer: B Explanation: Security groups are stateful and apply an implicit “allow if any rule matches” model. When multiple inbound rules exist, they are evaluated as an OR condition, not AND. That means: if a request comes from 203.0.113.25, it is allowed (Rule 1). If a request comes from any other IP, it is still allowed because of Rule 2 (0.0.0.0/0). The more permissive rule overrides the restrictive one in practice, making the restrictive rule redundant. Net effect: Port 80 is open to the entire internet. Question 5: When is a private IP address released from an EC2 instance? A.When the instance is stopped B.When the instance is terminated C.When the instance is restarted D.When the instance is hibernated Answer: B Explanation: Each EC2 instance is associated with an Elastic Network Interface (ENI). The primary private IP address is attached to this ENI. Stopping, starting, rebooting, or hibernating an instance does not release the private IP; the ENI remains attached to the instance. When the instance is terminated, the ENI is deleted (unless it’s a secondary ENI that you manually attached), and the private IP address is released back to the subne t’s pool. Public IPs behave differently — they are released when you stop or terminate the instance (unless using Elastic IPs). For a full set of 1150 questions. Go to https://skillcertpro.com/product/aws - certified - security - specialty - scs - c02 - exam - questions/ SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question wh ich helps to understand the concepts better. It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam. SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks. You will get life time access and life time free updates SkillCertPr o assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt. Question 6: What cannot be specified as a source or destination in a security group rule? A. Security Group of Network Load Balancer B. None C. Security Group of the EC2 instances D. Security Group of the Client Answer: C Explanation: Security Group of the EC2 instances. When you register an instance with a network load balancer, from the client traffic flow perspective, it appears as if the instance is directly interacting with the client. The second aspect is network load balancer does not support the security group firewall. Instead, the security group firewall rules are applied as part of the instance security group. Please read Finer Points – Security Group and NACL with Load Balancers article in this section. Question 7: What is the procedure for replacing instances in an immutable infrastructure setup managed with Auto Scaling when new AMIs are released with updated security patches? A. Create a new version of the launch template to use the new AMI, update Auto Scaling Group to use this new version of the template, and then refresh instances B. Use AWS Config to detect and terminate existing vulnerable instances and let Auto scaling replace the terminated instances C. Update existing Launch template to use new AMI and use Auto Scaling Refresh instances feature D. Use Systems Manager - Patch Manager to replace existing instances and launch new instances Answer: A Explanation: Launch template is immutable, and you need to create a new version with the correct AMI and configure Auto Scaling Group to use this new version. With instance refresh, you can perform a rolling replacement of instances. It takes a set of instances out of service, terminates them, and launches a set of instances with the new desired configuration. Then, it waits until the instances pass your health checks and complete warmup before it moves on to replacing other instances. Patch manager is used for patching existing instances and cannot replace them. AWS Config requires too much work Question 8: To automate the periodic snapshot creation of EBS volumes, which AWS service is recommended for job scheduling? A. Lambda Trigger B. CloudWatch Alarms C. Chime D. CloudWatch Events Answer: D Explanation: CloudWatch Events. You can specify a schedule using CRON expression and configure the target to invoke. Lambda is used as a target to perform actions and initiate workflow in response to an event. Chime is a video conferencing, online meeting solution from AWS. CloudWatch Alarms tracks the changes in the metric and invokes the configured target when a metric breaches the threshold. Question 9: If a security group is stateful and automatically allows responses to requests, why would outbound rules be necessary? A. A server can make an outbound request only if the outbound rules allow the traffic B. The security group is not stateful. It allows response traffic only if outbound rules are present C. Because every security group requires at least one outbound rule Answer: A Explanation: Outbound rules are useful when the server needs to make an outbound request. For example, an application server needs to establish a connection with a database server. So, the application server makes an outbound connection request to the database. Question 10: For a CRM solution provider needing to whitelist hundreds of dealer CIDR blocks, which AWS option is recommended? A. Use Operating System Firewall to configure whitelisted IP addresses B. Use AWS WAF IP Address Sets to configure whitelisted CIDR blocks C. Use Network ACL to whitelist CIDR blocks and attach to all subnets that process requests from dealers D. Use Security Groups to whitelist CIDR blocks and attach to the load balancer Answer: B Explanation: With WAF IP Address sets, you have a scalable solution for whitelisting or blacklisting. This solution supports 1000s of IP address blocks. The WAF IP Address sets and Regex Pattern Sets are reusable across different Web ACLs. Security Group has a limit of a few hundred entries, and Network ACL has a limit of a few 10s of entries. With OS Firewalls, you need to configure every server and keep them insync For a full set of 1150 questions. Go to https://skillcertpro.com/product/aws - certified - security - specialty - scs - c02 - exam - questions/ SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question wh ich helps to understand the concepts better. It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam. SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks. You will get life time access and life time free updates SkillCertPr o assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.