001. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation and revise these when you learn more about the risk? A A Risk Monitoring B Risk Planning C Risk Analysis D Risk Identification 002. Which of the following risks are derived from the organizational environment where the software is being developed? D A People Risks B Technology Risks C Estimation Risks D Organizational Risks 003. Which of the following risks are derived from the software or hardware technologies that are used to develop the system? B A Managerial Risks B Technology Risks C Estimation Risks D Organizational Risks 004. Which of the following strategies means that the impact of the risk will be reduced? B A Avoidance strategies B Minimization strategies C Contingency plans D Organizational restructuring 005. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: There will be a change of organizational management with different priorities. C A Staff Turnover B Technology Change C Management Change D Product competition 006. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: The underlying technology on which the system is built is superseded by new technology. B A Staff Turnover B Technology Change C Management Change D Product competition 007. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for? D A Client B Investor C Production Team D Project Manager 008. Which of the following risk is the failure of a purchased component to perform as expected? B A Project Risk B Product Risk C Business Risk D Programming Risk 009. Which of the following technique will ensure that impact of risk will be less? C A Risk avoidance technique B Risk Mitigation technique C Risk contingency technique D Risk Monitoring technique 010. Which one is not a risk management activity? B A Risk assessment B Risk generation C Risk control D Risk planning 011. What is associated with product risk? D A Control of test item B Negative consequences C non-availability of test environment D Test object 012. After deployment of a system, software is incorrectly performing one of its major functionality. Who is going to determine how badly it will hamper the organization? D A QA personnel B Developer. C Technical People. D Business Analyst. 013. What is risk? A A Negative consequence that could occur B Negative consequence that will occur C Negative consequence that must occur D Negative consequence that shall occur 014. As a tester which of the following will come under product risk if you are testing an e-commerce website? D A Shortage of testers B Many changes in SRS that caused changes in test cases C Delay in fixing defects by development team D Failure to transfer a user to secure gateway while paying 015. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: Derive traceability information to maximize information hiding in the design.? C A Underestimated development time B Organizational restructuring C Requirements changes D Avoidance strategies 016. RE represents what C A Risk Expense B Related Expense C Risk Exposure D Risk Evaluation 017. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to specify threats to the project plan? D A Risk identification B Performance risk C Support risk D Risk projection 018. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by management or the marketplace? A A Business impact risks B Process definition risks C Product size risks D Development environment risks 019. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the software to be built or modified? C A Business impact risks B Process definition risks C Product size risks D Development environment risks 020. Which of the following term is best defined by the statement: the degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.? A A Performance risk B Cost risk C Support risk D Schedule risk 021. What threatens the viability of the software to be built? B A Known risks B Business risks C Project risks D Technical risks. 022. Which of the following is not a business risk? C A building an excellent product or system that no one really wants B losing the support of senior management due to a change in focus or change in people C lack of documented requirements or software scope D losing budgetary or personnel commitment. 023. What is the product of the probability of incurring a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that loss? A A Risk exposure B Risk prioritization C Risk analysis D Risk assessment 024. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the software to be produced? D A Known risks B Business risks C Project risks D Technical risks. 025. An easy-to-use approach that is well-adapted to evaluating risk in certain situations is known as C A Indirect Simulation B Vague Simulations C Monte Carlo simulation D Modulated Simulations 026. Projects are divided into tasks, which are further divided into chunks known as B A Portfolios B Work packages C Process D Operations. 027. A temporary endeavour undertaken to create a unique product or service is known as? C A Program B Process C Project D Operations 028. In risk management system we must identify assumptions made in preliminary project plan that may be? A A Source of risk B Input to risk C Output as risk D Source of Project 029. In Risk management process what makes a note of all possible risks, which may occur in the project? D A Manage B Monitor C Categorize D Identification 030. Which chart is a tool that depicts project as network diagram that is capable of graphically representing main events of project in both parallel and consecutive way? A A PERTchart B Ganttchart C Pie chart D Graph chart 031. Abbreviate the term PERT. A A Program Evaluation & Review Technique B Process Evolution & Review Tool C Project Evaluation & Request Technique D Process Evaluation & Request Technique 032. If P is risk probability, L is loss, and then Risk Exposure (RE) is computed as_____ C A RE = P/L B RE = P + L C RE = P*L D RE = 2* P *L 033. Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project documents available to Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What is this document called? D A Risk Management Plan B List of Risks C Monte Carlo diagram. D Risk Break down Structure. 034. During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact? C A Identifying Risks. B Plan Risk Responses. C Perform Qualitative risk analysis. D Perform Quantitative risk analysis. 035. Which of the following not considered as a risk in Project management? C A Specification Delays. B Staff Turnovers. C Testing. D Product competition. 036. The PERT technique gives most weightage to? C A The most pessimistic estimate obtained B The most optimistic estimate obtained C The most likely estimate obtained D All the estimates obtained have equal weights. 037. Sixth sub process in risk management process is __________ C A Risk Response B Qualitative Risk Analysis C Risk monitoring and controlling D Quantitative Risk Analysis. 038. Which one of the following is not a Software Configuration Management Activity D A Release Management. B Project Management. C Branch Management. D Risk Management. 039. Anything outside a system (the project) that can affect or be affected by system, is known as A A Environment B Medium C Channel D Boundary matrix 040. _______ is organization that does any semiformal risk management, fail to consider risks associated with projects B A Internal environment B External environment C Uncertain future D Market value 041. In PERT, slack time equals? B A EST + t. B LST - EST C Zero D EFT - EST 042. The standard deviation for the PERT project is approximately? A A The square root of the sum of the variances along the critical path. B The sum of the critical path activity standard deviations. C The square root of the sum of the variances of the project activities. D The square root of the product of the variances along the critical path. 043. __________activities are ones that will delay the entire project if they are late or delayed. A A Critical B Dummy C Predecessor D Simple 044. PERT and CPM differ in that B A PERT uses dummy activities, and CPM does not. B PERT uses three time estimates and CPM use a single time estimate. C PERT does not allow us to monitor costs, and CPM does. D PERT uses AOA networks, and CPM uses AON networks. 045. PERT assumes that the completion time of a project follows a ___________ A A Normal Distribution B Exponential Distribution C Beta Distribution D Uniform Distribution 046. In PERT, the time estimate b represents C A The optimistic time B The most likely time C The pessimistic time D The expected time 047. The probability distribution often used by PERT to describe activity times is the? C A Normal Distribution B Exponential Distribution C Beta Distribution D Uniform Distribution 048. Which of the following is not a project managers activity? D A project control B project management C project planning D project design 049. Weekly or monthly Progress Meetings are ______________ report type C A Oral Formal Adhoc B Written Formal Regular C Oral Formal Regular D Written Formal Adhoc 050. What allows different projects to use the same source files at the same time? A A Version Control B Access control C CM Process D Version Control and Access control 051. What are one or more software configuration items that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for further development? A A Baseline B Cumulative changes C CM D Change Control 052. How are baselines verified? C A by reviews B by inspections C by testing of code D by Feedback 053. CCB stands for A A Change Control Board B Change Control Baseline C Cumulative Changes in Baseline D Cumulative Changes in Board 054. SCM stands for B A Software Control Management B Software Configuration Management C Software Concept Management D Software Concept Manager 055. In PERT, if the pessimistic time were 14 weeks, the optimistic time were 8 weeks, and the most likely time were 11 weeks, then ___________ A A The variance would be 1 week. B The variance would be 11 weeks. C The expected time would be 6 weeks. D The expected time would be 5.5 weeks. 056. The overall responsibility for ensuring satisfactory progress on a project is often the role of ________________ B A Product Board B Project Manager C Project Steering committee D Project people committee 057. What is the critical path through the network above? B A ABGHIF B ABDEF C ABCF D ABCEF 058. What is Cost Performance Index? B A CPI = BCWP*ACWP B CPI = BCWP/ACWP C CPI = BCWP / BCWS D CPI = BCWP * BCWS 059. What is Scheduled Performance Index? C A SPI = BCWP*ACWP B SPI = BCWP/ACWP C SPI = BCWP / BCWS D SPI = BCWP * BCWS 060. What is Free Float? C A the amount of work an activity may be delayed without any subsequent activity B the amount of delay an activity may be delayed without any subsequent activity C the amount of time an activity may be delayed without any subsequent activity D the amount of time an activity may be delayed without any parallel activity 061. Which model can be selected if user is involved in all the phases of SDLC? B A Build & Fix Model B RAD Model C Waterfall Model D Prototyping Model 062. Which of the following elements is not normally common in projects? D A Uniqueness B Uncertainty C An Objective D No defined end point 063. What form of planning and control focuses on the low volumehigh variety end of the continuum? C A Lean planning and control B Quality planning and control C Project planning and control D Supply planning and control 064. A Gantt chart indicates: A A Overall elapsed time on project. B Activities occurring in parallel. C System Development Life Cycle D System Design Life Cycle 065. In earned value management, PV it refers to ________ D A Projected value B Profit value C Processing value D Planned value 066. Method of earned value allows calculation of A A Forecasts B Structure C Reporting D Scope figures 067. Budgeted cost for all activities in a project with help of earned value method is defined by B A Actual cost B Budget at completion C Budget for completion D Estimate at completion 068. Earned value analysis compares planned cost and schedule with the A A Actual figures B Economic growth C Lagged figures D Earned figures 069. In earned value management, EV stands for B A Economic value B Earned value C Estimate value D End value 070. What is Cost Variance? A A BCWP - ACWP B BCWP *ACWP C BCWP / BCWS D BCWP + ACWP 071. Earned value management introduces a method to answer how much has been ______ C A Left B Assigned C Accomplished D Projected 072. In which of thefollowing stages are you more likely to find status reports, many changes, and the creation of forecasts? C A Defining B Planning C Executing D Delivering 073. As software manager, when you will decide the number of people required for a software project? C A Before the scope is determined. B Before an estimate of the development effort is made. C After an estimate of the development effort is made. D After the scope is determined. 074. In EVM method, schedule variance can be calculated as C A AC-EV B AC-PV C EV-PV D EV-AC 075. Reporting structure represented by earned value analysis is said to be? B A Extensive B Uniform C Absolute D Random 076. In EVM, budgetary conformance of actual cost of work performed can be calculated through? C A Cumulative cost B Earned value C Cost variance D Actual cost 077. A company is developing an advance version of their current software available in the market, what model approach would they prefer? C A RAD B Iterative Enhancement C both RAD & Iterative Enhancement D Spiral 078. Amount of work completed to date compared with planned work in EVM method is? C A Schedule performance index B Cost performance index C Percentage complete D Percentage spent 079. One who keeps daily account of budgets, cost variances, labour charges, project supplies, capital equipment status, is C A Contract Administrator B Support Services Manager C Project Controller D Test Engineer 080. Technical needs of projects often requires a? A A System approach B Analytical Approach C Linear Approach D Synopsis Approach 081. Activity allows software team to assess progress against project plan and take necessary action to maintain schedule is? A A software project tracking and control B risk management C software quality assurance D formal technical reviews 082. In Software Engineering Environment, Environmental resources incorporate with_____________? B A Only Software Components B Hardware and Software C Complexity D Uniqueness 083. Project team has access to whatever technical knowledge resides in the? A A Functional group B Marketing group C Sales group D Subcontractors group 084. A project document that describes all work that must be done to complete project, is known as? B A Work Basic Structure B Work Breakdown Structure C Work Break Structure D Work Boundary Structure 085. Project is separated from rest of parent system, in C A Systematicproject Organization B Spectrum Project Organization C Pure Project organization D Functional ProjectOrganization 086. The following method of project monitoring is more appropriate for T&M projects? B A Milestone Based B Weekly or Monthly Reviews C Decision point based D Upon Acceptance Criteria 087. Resource requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its _____ progress stage D A 40 to 55% B 55 to 70% C 70 to 80% D 80 to 95% 088. EVA Helps in? A A Cost monitoring of Project B Quality monitoring of Project C Product monitoring D Process analysis 089. The role of Project Steering Committee is? D A Govern Day to Day operations of the project B Report Project Status to the CEO C Escalation mechanism set by the customer D High level monitoring of the project by the Key stakeholders 090. Critical path in the activity network diagram indicates? D A Chain of activities requiring common resources B Path of least resistance to delay C Activities whose resources cannot be D Activities which has zero or minimum float scheduled late 091. To shorten duration of the project , the following can be done? A A Reducing the duration of activities on critical path B Eliminating non critical activities C Providing more resources to the activities with more float. D By employing critical chain analysis 092. EVA does not integrate? B A Risk register B Quality C Time D Cost 093. In __________ approach, Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated to produce an estimate for the overall job. C A Algorithmic model B Expert judgment C Bottom-up D Top down 094. Controlling the changes in the project may affect A A The progress of the project & Stage Cost B Stage cost & Quality C Project scope & Quality D Quality of the Project 095. Tool used forcomparison of the proposed project to complete projects of a similar nature whose costs are known is ___________ D A Algorithmic model B Expert judgment C Top down D Analogy 096. Five dimensions that must be managed on a project? B A Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff B Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff C Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff D Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer 097. Devising and maintaining a workable scheme to accomplish the business need is? B A Initiating process B Planning process C Executing process D Controlling process 098. The probability of completing the project can be estimated based upon the ____? B A Uniform distribution curve B Normal distribution curve. C U-shaped distribution curve D Bell Curve 099. Following are the characteristics of Project Mindset.? A A Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning B Time, Project management, Information sharing, Processes, structured planning C Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, capability, structured planning D Time, Responsiveness, Information sharing, Processes, project planning 100. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality Costs? D A Prevention B Internal Failure C External Failure D Appraisal 101. What is Six Sigma? C A It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance B The Six Sigma refers to six standard deviations C It is the most widely used strategy for statistical quality assurance and The Six Sigma refers to six standard deviations D A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for quality walkthrough or inspection 102. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality plan for B A Team B Project C Customers D project manager 103. _________ Which requirements is the foundation from which quality is measured? B A Hardware B Software C Programmers D Manager 104. Which of the following is responsible for the quality objective? A A Top level management B Middle Level management C Low level Management D Customer 105. Which of the following is not categorized under Product Operation of McCalls Software Quality Factors? A A Flexibility B Reliability C Usability D Integrity 106. Six Sigma methodology defines three core steps C A Analyse, improve, control B Analyse, design, verify C Define, measure, analyse D Define, measure, control 107. The objective of ISO-9000 family of Quality management is B A Employee satisfaction B Customer Satisfaction C Skill enhancement D Environmental Issues 108. ISO emphasis on? C A Rejection B Inspection C Prevention D Convention 109. What is ISO? C A Indian Organization for Standard B Internal Organization for Standard C International Standard Organization D Intelligent Organization for Standard 110. Which of the following is not a core step of Six Sigma? B A Define B Control C Measure D Analyse 111. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an error is detected in a product prior to shipment? B A Prevention B Internal Failure C External Failure D Appraisal 112. According to Deming, Quality problems are A A Due to Management B Due to Method C Due to Machine D Due to Material 113. CMM stands for? A A Capability Maturity Model B Capability Monitoring Model C Capability Measuring Model D Capability Matching Model 114. Which of the following does not affect the software quality A A Market B Product C Technology D People 115. The number of failures over a period of time is called ___________ B A The mean time between failure B The failure rate C The average failure point D The mean time to failure 116. Measure of reliability is given by ______. C A Mean Time between success. B Mean reliable C Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) D MTTR 117. The CMM emphasizes B A continuous process improvement B the need to record information C the need to accept quality system D the need to accept process system 118. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of quality records. C A collection B maintenance C verification D dis-positioning 119. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming product should be D A deleted B eliminated C identified D eliminated and identified 120. Identify the correct option with reference to Software Quality Metrics. D A Integrity = [Sigma(1 threat)] * (1 security) B Integrity = [1 Sigma(threat)] * (1 security) C Integrity = [1 threat * Sigma (1 security)]. D Integrity = Sigma [1 threat * (1 security)]. 121. Which one of the following is not a software quality model? (S) A A ISO 9000 B McCall model C Boehm model D ISO 9126 122. Suitability, Accuracy, Interoperability, and security are what type quality attribute of ISO 9126? C A Reliability B Efficiency C Functionality D Usability 123. ______ is a measure of the time between observed system failures. C A Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD) B Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF) C Mean Time to Failure (MTTF) D Availability (AVAIL) 124. Reliability in software system can be achieved using which of the following strategies. i) Fault Avoidanceii) Fault Tolerance iii) Fault Detectioniv) Fault Deletion A A i, ii and iii only B ii, iii and iv only C i, iii and iv only D i, ii, and iv only 125. What is the availability of software with the following reliability figures? Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) = 25 days Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 6 hours D A 1% B 24% C 99% D 99.009% 126. An Operating System (OS) crashes on the average once in 30 days, that is, the Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) = 30 days. When this happens, it takes 10 minutes to recover the OS, that is, the Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) = 10 minutes. The availability of the OS with these reliability figures is approximately? D A 96.97% B 97.97% C 99.009% D 99.97% 127. What is DRE stand for B A Defect recursion Effect B Defect Removal Effectiveness C Defect Removal Error D Defect returning Error 128. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility? A A Process control B Document control C Control of nonconforming products D Servicing 129. The degree to which the design specifications are followed during manufacturing is known as B A Quality of design B Quality of conformance C Quality of testing D Quality of coding 130. Which of the following is not included in External failure costs?? A A Testing B help line support C warranty work D complaint resolution 131. Time Behaviour and Resource Behaviour fall under which quality attribute of ISO 9126? B A Reliability B Efficiency C Functionality D Usability 132. The CMM model is a technique to B A Automatically maintain the software reliability B Improve the software process. C Test the software D Design the software 133. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting? D A MTTR B MTTF C MTSF D MTBF 134. _______ is a measure of how likely the system is to be available for use. D A Probability of Failure on Demand (POFOD) B Rate of Failure Occurrence (ROCOF) C Mean Time to Failure (MTTF) D Availability (AVAIL) 135. Which of the following are key components of a Total Quality Management system? D A Individual responsibility, incremental improvement, use of raw data B Collective responsibility, continual improvement, use of raw data C Group responsibility, staged improvement, knowledge D Involves everyone, continual improvement, use of data and knowledge 136. What is meant by Kaizen? C A card signal B to avoid inadvertent errors C change for better quality D Customers 137. Improving quality through small, incremental improvements is a characteristic of what type of quality management system? D A Just in Time B Six Sigma C Total Quality Management D Kaizen 138. Size and Complexity are a part of B A Process Metrics B Product Metrics C Project Metrics D Task Metrics 139. Which one of the availability criteria is optimal for carrier grade class systems? A A 40 seconds of down time per year B 40 minutes of down time per year C 10 minutes of down time per year D 10 seconds of down time per year 140. If X is the MTBF of a system and Y is the failure rate of the system then which one is true? A A X * Y = 1 B X = Y C NX = Y, where N is the life time D X/Y = N, where N is the life time 141. MTTR is the best way to characterize? A A Availability B Reliability C Fault Tolerance D Dependability 142. Non-conformance to software requirements is known as ____________ C A Software availability B Software reliability C Software failure D Software Control 143. A system has MTBF of 100,000 hours and MTTR of 30 minutes. What is the average down time of A the system in one year? A 2.6 minutes B 1.8 minutes C 18 minutes D 30 minutes 144. Which ISO standard is used in international automobile companies to set automotive quality system standards? B A ISO 14000 B TS 16949 C ISO 9000 D ISO 9126 145. Which of the following statements is/are false?1. Fault tree analysis method is used to determine reliability of product 2. The goal of Six Sigma is to reduce number of defects to 2.4 parts per billion 3. Six sigma is represented by normal distribution curve 4. Poka yoke is a policy which prevents occurrence of human errors D A Only statement 3 B Statement 2 and statement 3 C Statement 1, 3 and 4 D Only statement 2 146. What is quality assurance? A A Quality assurance deals with activities which prove that products and services meet the required quality standard B Quality assurance deals with activities which aim at customers satisfaction C Quality assurance deals with controlling the quality of products by inspection D Quality assurance deals with controlling the quality of products by design 147. The MTBF of system should be high for fault tolerant systems with? A A Single Point Failure B Multi Point Tolerant C Single Point Tolerant D Multi-Tolerant 148. What is the aim of fool proofing technique used for total quality management? A A to achieve zero defects B to specify time schedules C to specify targets D to specify design