CertsChief Guaranteed Success with Accurate & Updated Questions. Questions & Answers PDF For More Information - Visit: https://www.certschief.com/ ProductFull Version Features: 90 Days Free Updates 30 Days Money Back Guarantee Instant Download Once Purchased 24/7 Online Chat Support EMS IBSC-FP-C The International Board of Specialty Certification: Flight Paramedic-Certified Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ Latest Version: 6.0 Question: 1 Which of the following is incorrect regarding aircraft navigational direction? A. An aircraft with red light on the left side is traveling toward you B. Starboard side is the right side if you are facing forward in seat C. An aircraft with green light on the left is traveling toward you D. East is 90o Answer: A Explanation: Aircraft navigational direction is associated with degrees on a compass, with true North being 0o, and South being 180o. The port side is the left side if you are facing forward, and the starboard side is the right side if you are facing forward. Aircraft have a red light on the port side and a green light on the starboard side. If an aircraft is approaching you, you will see a green light on the left side. Question: 2 Your flight team has successfully intubated a patient during air medical transport. Shortly after intubation, your patient develops hypotension. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the rationale as to why your patient developed hypotension? A. The sedative agent administered during intubation has vasoconstriction qualities. B. The patient had an elevated shock index prior to intubation. C. The induction agent administered during intubation has negative inotropic qualities. D. The transition from positive pressure ventilation to negative pressure ventilation after intubation is complete causes hypotension. Answer: C Explanation: A significant number—close to 25%—of patients who are intubated during emergency situations go on to develop hypotension shortly after they are intubated. This hypotension results from the administration of sedatives, induction agents, and anxiolytic drugs during intubation, all of which tend to possess negative inotropic qualities (decreasing the force of cardiac contractility) and cause vasodilation. In addition, the transition from negative pressure ventilation (spontaneous breathing) to positive pressure ventilation (bagged or ventilator breathing) alters both preload and afterload, further contributing to a drop in systemic blood pressure. Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ And while a patient with an elevated shock index is more likely to experience hypotension, there are not enough details in this scenario to support this contributing to the development of hypotension in this specific patient. Question: 3 You are transporting a critically ill patient via air medical transport, and encounter significant turbulence during transport as a result of storm activity, requiring you to leave your patient in a supine position. Which of the following complications may arise as a result of transporting the patient in supine position? A. Decrease in functional reserve capacity B. Increase in preload C. Increase in afterload D. Decrease in central circulation Answer: D Explanation: When at all possible, the patient being transported by air should be positioned with the head and/or upper body elevated using ramping (folded blanket stack) or by elevation of the head of the transport bed, ideally to 30 degrees. This helps improve patency of the upper airway, decreases the workload of the patient's breathing, and increases the period of safe apnea (the length of time before a patient reaches an oxygen saturation level of 88% to 90%). Confounding factors, such as severe weather, may require that the patient be transported using a supine position in order to ensure patient safety, but this can place the patient at risk of a decrease in functional reserve capacity, decrease in tidal volume, elevates the gastric bubble above the cardiac sphincter, and a decrease in preload, worsening their overall condition. When placed supine, approximately 50% of lung volume is lost. Question: 4 The transport team is using the maternal fetal triage index in preparation for the planned transport of a pregnant patient. According to this triage tool, a patient who is 34 weeks pregnant and is experiencing regular contractions, and who has herpes simplex lesions is considered to have what level of transport need? A. Urgent/Priority 2 B. Stat/Priority 1 C. Nonurgent/Priority 4 D. Prompt/Priority 3 Answer: D Explanation: The maternal-fetal triage index tool distributed by the Association of Women's Health, Obstetric, and Neonatal Nurses (AWHONN) was developed for use during the transport of pregnant patients. The tool provides an algorithm for determining when a pregnant patient should be transported based on a Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ limited set of criterion data, including vital signs parameters, number of weeks of pregnancy, the presence (or absence) of high-risk situations or data, and the presence of any contractions. The triage index is comprised of 5 categories of transport needs: STAT/Priority 1: includes patients who present with a need for acute, life-saving interventions, including the presence of prolapsed cord, signs of imminent birth including visible presenting fetal part or maternal bearing down with contractions, maternal hemorrhage, cardiac compromise or severe respiratory distress, maternal seizures, or the following abnormal vital signs: inability to detect the fetal heart rate or a fetal heart rate less than 100 beats per minute for greater than 1 minute; a maternal heart rate less than 40 or greater than 130, a systolic blood pressure ≥ 160 or a diastolic ≥ 110, maternal apnea, or an oxygen saturation < 93%. Urgent/Priority 2: includes patients experiencing severe pain unrelated to contractions, alterations in maternal mental status, suicidal or homicidal patients, active vaginal bleeding, or difficulty bleeding; other inclusions are patients who are ≥ 34 weeks gestation and who are either experiencin g regular contractions or leaking of amniotic fluid and who: are HIV+, multiple gestation pregnancy, have placenta previa, have a fetus in breech presentation, etc. The following abnormal vital signs are considered inclusion in this category as well: a maternal heart rate > 120 or < 50, maternal temperature ≥ 38.3 degrees Celsius, a respiratory rate ≥ 26 or ≤ 12, oxygen saturation < 95%, systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 or diastolic blood pressure ≥ 90, or a fetal heart rate ≥ 160 for longer than 1 minute. Prompt/Priority 3: includes patients who are in active labor at 34 weeks or greater or who are experiencing early labor signs and have ruptured or leaking of amniotic fluid; patients who are experiencing regular contractions at 34 weeks or greater and who have HSV lesions, are scheduled for repeat Cesarean section, or who have a multiple gestation pregnancy. Vital signs abnormalities which are included in this category are: presence of a maternal temperature of > 38.0 degrees Celsius, or a systolic blood pressure ≥ 140 or diastolic blood pressure of ≥ 90 and are asymptomatic. Non-Urgent/Priority 4: includes patients who are laboring at 37 weeks or greater or who report leaking or rupture of amniotic fluid; or patients who are experiencing what may be considered to be common pregnancy discomforts, including vaginal discharge, constipation, round ligament pain, nausea, or anxiety. Scheduled/Requesting Priority 5: includes patients who have requested transport to complete a service such as outpatient visits, or any visits or procedures scheduled by the provider. Question: 5 Which of the following statements regarding inhalation injuries that accompany burn injuries to the face, head, and neck is most accurate? A. Injury to the infraglottic region primarily results from inhalation of the heated air in the burning environment B. Asphyxia of burn victims typically results from hypercapnia C. Inhalation injury may not become apparent until after fluid resuscitation has occurred D. Injury to the supraglottic region primarily results from inhalation of the chemical by-products of combustion Answer: C Explanation: Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ The inhalation injuries sustained during a fire constitute the primary mechanism of death in burn patients and contribute significantly to overall morbidity and mortality in these individuals. Inhalation injuries are classified into three types: asphyxia due to carbon monoxide poisoning, thermal injuries (primarily) to the supraglottic region, and chemical injuries (primarily) to the infraglottic region. Any patient who has sustained burns to the face, neck, or head should be suspected of having sustained an inhalation injury, and even in patients who do not initially appear to have sustained inhalation injury, this possibility should be closely watched for, as evidence of inhalation injury may not become apparent until after the patient has received fluid resuscitation, correcting the initial "dehydrated" nature of the burned tissues. Question: 6 According to the safety initiatives established by the Commission on Accreditation of Medical Transport Services (CAMTS), Helicopter Emergency Medical Services (HEMS) pilots must: A. Be instrument rated for all flights to qualify to fly B. Complete 1,500 hours of flight time in helicopters to qualify to fly C. Complete 1,000 hours as pilot in command (PIC) to qualify to fly D. Possess Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificate to qualify to fly Answer: C Explanation: The Commission on Accreditation of Medical Transport Services (CAMTS) has established safety initiatives detailing qualifications necessary for both fixed-wing aircraft pilots and rotary wing (helicopter) pilots. In order to qualify to fly as a HEMS pilot, the pilot must: • have completed 2,000 hours of total flight time, 1,200 of which must have been in piloting of helicopters, • have completed 1,000 hours as the PIC, 100 hours of which must have taken place during night flights, • be instrument rated for flying in instrument meteorological conditions (IFR in IMC), • obtain Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certification within 5 years of qualifying as a HEMS pilot, and • have completed an air orientation of his/her area (5 hours total, 2 of which must be at night) prior to being allowed to accept any solo mission. Question: 7 Which of the following most accurately describes the significance of the turtle sign? A. The mother is experiencing uterine tetany. B. The fetus is experiencing shoulder dystocia. C. The fetus is presenting in a frank breech presentation. D. The mother is experiencing placental abruption. Answer: B Explanation: Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ Shoulder dystocia is an obstetrical emergency which occurs as a result of the fetal head being successfully delivered, but the shoulder, following the delivery of the head, becomes wedged or stuck behind the maternal suprapubic bone. The medical transport providers may observe the presence of the turtle sign: after the baby's head has successfully passed under the suprapubic bone and presented on the perineum, it is retracted or sucked back into the vagina, giving an appearance similar to that of a turtle retracting its head into its shell, due to the shoulder being caught up on the suprapubic bone. Babies who experience shoulder dystocia during delivery are at risk for clavicle fractures and brachial plexus injuries. The medical transport team can attempt to facilitate delivery of a shoulder dystocia through use of the McRoberts maneuver or the Gaskin maneuver, in which the maternal position is changed to facilitate passage of the obstructed shoulder under the pubic bone Question: 8 Which of the following Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) modes is most appropriate for a patient diagnosed Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)? A. Venous-venous ECMO B. Venoarterial ECMO C. IVC-ECMO D. AA-ECMO Answer: A Explanation: Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) is used as an emergency measure to support the cardiopulmonary needs of patients experiencing cardiac or pulmonary system failure. ECMO is often used to support patients experiencing ARDS, removing carbon dioxide from the system and providing necessary oxygenation. ECMO may also be used to reduce the risk of barotrauma from ventilators. When used to treat patients experiencing pulmonary failure, ECMO is set up with the cannula system draining from the venous system, into the ECMO circuit, and then the blood is reinfused into the venous system. This method is referred to as venous-venous ECMO (also referred to as venovenous ECMO). Venoarterial ECMO, in which the cannulas drain from the venous system, into the ECMO circuit, and then the blood is reinfused into the arterial system, is used to treat patients experiencing cardiac or cardiopulmonary failure. Question: 9 In general, how much blood volume must be lost (in an adult patient) before blood pressure changes are observed? A. 10% to 15% of the total blood volume B. Greater than 45% of the total blood volume C. 30% to 40% of the total blood volume D. 20% to 30% of the total blood volume Answer: C Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ Explanation: Hypovolemic shock may result from hemorrhage or nonhemorrhage situations. Obstetrical hemorrhage, gastrointestinal bleeding, and large vessel disruption are the three main causes of need for large volumes of blood transfusion as part of resuscitation during hemorrhage, with obstetrical hemorrhage being the leading cause of maternal mortality around the world. Blood pressure changes typically may not be noted until the patient has experienced a loss of 30% to 40% of their total blood volume. The critical care provider needs to pay close attention to all physical examination changes and vital sign changes to prevent the development of hypovolemic shock as a result of hemorrhage. Question: 10 Which of the following statements about transporting a burn patient by helicopter is false? A. Avoid NG or OG tubes before flight in patients with burns > 20% B. Current ABA guidelines recommend a fluid administration rate of 1000 mL per hour C. Protect patients from hypothermia during flight D. Escharotomy may be a life-saving intervention in flight for circumferential burns Answer: B Explanation: Current ABA guidelines for fluid administration: < 5 years = 125 mL/hour 6 -13 years = 250 mL/ hour > 14 years = 500 mL/ hour Patients with BSA > 20% may develop adynamic ileus, so no NG or OG tubes before flight. Protect patients from hypothermia. An escharotomy may be necessary in flight by trained providers for circumferential burns. Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/ Page | 1 http://www.certschief.com/exam/0B0-104/ For More Information - Visit: http://www.certschief.com/ Discount Coupon Code: CERTSCHIEF10 Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org) Visit us athttps://www.certschief.com/ibsc-fp-c/