Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 1 / 6 Exam : ZDTE Title : https://www.passcert.com/ZDTE.html Zscaler Digital Transformation Engineer Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 2 / 6 1.What is the default classification for a newly discovered application in the App Inventory in the Third-Party App Governance Admin Portal? A. Sanctioned B. Unsanctioned C. Reviewing D. Unclassified Answer: D Explanation: In Zscaler 3rd-Party App Governance documentation, the App Inventory is where administrators view and manage all discovered third-party apps, add-ons, and extensions. The “ Classifying Apps ” help article defines the available states: Unclassified, Sanctioned, Reviewing, and Unsanctioned. Crucially, it notes that Unclassified is the default state for any new application before an administrator evaluates it. “ Sanctioned ” is used once the organization has explicitly approved an app for use; “ Unsanctioned ” is used when an app is not allowed; and “ Reviewing ” indicates it is under investigation. Those labels are the result of governance decisions applied after discovery. ZDTE study materials on SaaS and app governance mirror this behavior: newly discovered apps enter the inventory without an explicit decision, allowing security teams to triage risk, review permissions, and only then mark them as sanctioned or unsanctioned. Because the default state for a new entry is explicitly documented as Unclassified, the correct answer is D. Unclassified. 2.How many rounds of analysis are performed on a sandboxed sample to determine its characteristics? A. One static analysis, one dynamic analysis, and a second static analysis of all dropped files and artifacts from the dynamic analysis. B. As many rounds of analysis as the policy is configured to perform. C. Only a static analysis is performed. D. Only one static and one dynamic analysis is performed. Answer: A Explanation: Zscaler Cloud Sandbox is designed to detect advanced and previously unknown threats by deeply analyzing suspicious files in an isolated environment. According to Zscaler ’ s documented analysis pipeline, every sandboxed sample goes through a structured, multi-stage process rather than a single pass. First, the file undergoes static analysis, where the system inspects the file without executing it. This phase looks at elements such as structure, headers, embedded resources, and known malicious patterns or indicators. Next, the file is executed in a dynamic analysis environment (a sandbox) where Zscaler observes runtime behavior such as process creation, registry modifications, file system changes, network connections, and attempts at evasion or privilege escalation. During this dynamic phase, the file may drop or create additional files and artifacts. Zscaler then performs a second round of static analysis on those dropped components. This secondary static analysis is crucial because many sophisticated threats unpack or download their real payload only at runtime; analyzing those artifacts provides a much clearer view of the full attack chain. Because of this defined three-step approach — static, dynamic, then secondary static analysis on dropped artifacts — option A is the correct description of how many rounds of analysis are performed on a sandboxed sample. Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 3 / 6 3.Which type of sensitive information can be protected using OCR (Optical Character Recognition) technology? A. Personally Identifiable Information (PII) B. Network configurations C. Software licenses D. Financial transactions Answer: A Explanation: Zscaler ’ s Data Protection platform integrates Optical Character Recognition (OCR) into its inline Data Loss Prevention (DLP) capabilities. OCR enables Zscaler to extract text embedded within images — such as screenshots, scanned documents, or photos of forms — and subject that text to the same DLP inspection engines that normally analyze plain text content. Once OCR has converted image content into text, Zscaler can apply predefined dictionaries, custom dictionaries, and advanced classifiers to detect sensitive data types, including personally identifiable information (PII) such as national ID numbers, passport numbers, addresses, or other regulated personal data. This is crucial because many data leaks occur via screenshots or scanned documents that traditional, text-only DLP engines would miss. While OCR could, in theory, detect patterns related to network configurations, software licenses, or financial transactions, Zscaler ’ s training and exam materials emphasize its use to protect sensitive data in images — especially user-related regulated data such as PII and other compliance-relevant information. Network configurations and software licenses are better addressed through configuration management and IP protection policies, and “ financial transactions ” describes activities rather than a specific information pattern. Therefore, Personally Identifiable Information (PII) is the best and most exam-accurate answer for the type of sensitive information protected using OCR. 4.What is one key benefit of deploying a Private Service Edge (PSE) in a customer ’ s data center or office locations? A. It allows users to access private applications without encryption overhead for increased performance. B. It replaces the need for a Zscaler App Connector in the environment and simplifies the network. C. It eliminates the need to use Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) policies for internal applications. D. It provides Zero Trust Network Access policies locally, improving user experience and reducing latency. Answer: D Explanation: The ZDTE study content groups Private Service Edge under Advanced Platform Services, explaining that PSEs host the same Zero Trust Exchange policy and inspection engines, but run as customer-managed service edges inside data centers or large offices. They are designed to give on-premises users a “ local on-ramp ” to ZIA and ZPA services while still enforcing full zero-trust policy. The documentation emphasizes that PSEs do not replace App Connectors for ZPA; connectors are still required to establish inside-out application connectivity. Nor do PSEs remove the need for ZTNA policies — those policies remain central and are simply enforced closer to the user. Encryption is also preserved end-to-end; there is no “ unencrypted fast path ” described in the reference architecture. Instead, the primary benefit highlighted is performance and user experience: by enforcing ZIA/ZPA policies at a local PSE rather than a distant public service edge, organizations reduce round-trip latency Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 4 / 6 and keep traffic on optimal paths while maintaining identical security and access controls. 5.What are the building blocks of App Protection? A. Controls, Profiles, Policies B. Policies, Controls, Profiles C. Traffic Inspection, Vulnerability Identification, Action Based on User Behavior D. Profiles, Controls, Policies Answer: D Explanation: In Zscaler App Protection, the core design model is built around three fundamental building blocks presented in a specific logical order: Profiles, Controls, and Policies. The Digital Transformation Engineer material explains that App Protection ’ s goal is to apply fine-grained security actions to applications and user sessions based on risk and context. First, Profiles define who is being governed. They group users or devices that share common characteristics (such as department, location, or risk level). Next, Controls define what actions are allowed, restricted, or inspected. Examples include limiting copy-and-paste, file uploads and downloads, printing, clipboard usage, or enforcing additional inspection for sensitive content and risky behaviors. Finally, Policies define when and where those controls are applied by mapping profiles to specific applications or traffic categories under defined conditions (such as user risk posture, device posture, or access method). Options A and B contain the same elements but in the wrong conceptual order compared to how App Protection is taught and implemented. Option C describes generic security concepts, not the explicit App Protection building-block terminology. Therefore, the correct sequence and terminology, matching the App Protection framework, is Profiles, Controls, Policies. 6.What happens if a provisioning key is deleted in ZPA? A. All App Connectors enrolled with the key are revoked B. The key is stored as a backup for reactivation C. The client loses access to all applications permanently D. The provisioning key automatically regenerates Answer: A Explanation: In Zscaler Private Access, a provisioning key is a unique text string generated for an App Connector (or Private Service Edge) group and is used during enrollment to bind that connector to the correct group and PKI trust chain. The Zscaler Digital Transformation training material emphasizes that the provisioning key acts as the “ identity anchor ” for connectors in that group: it ’ s what the ZPA cloud uses to authenticate the connector at enrollment and associate it to the right configuration and policy context. When that key is deleted, ZPA effectively invalidates the trust relationship for any connectors that were enrolled with it. In practice, these connectors are treated as revoked and must be removed and re-enrolled using a new provisioning key to restore a healthy, supportable state. The key is not archived for later reuse, and it does not automatically regenerate. Deletion is intentionally destructive so that, if a key is lost or suspected to be compromised, an administrator can immediately ensure that all connectors tied to that key are no longer trusted and must be re-provisioned, which aligns with zero trust and Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 5 / 6 least-privilege principles. 7.The Zscaler for Users - Engineer (EDU-202) learning path consists of various solutions covered in eleven courses. Which of the following topics is out of scope for the Zscaler for Users - Engineer learning path? A. In-depth overview of Zscaler ’ s architecture platform, including its global scale, additional capabilities, and API infrastructure. B. Enabling versions to control which version (if any) of Zscaler Client Connector is available when end users manually update the app or when you configure automatic app updates. C. Configuration of ZDX for applications, call quality monitoring, probes, diagnostics, alerts, and role-based administration to ensure effective SaaS and web application monitoring. D. Exploring Intrusion Prevention System, DNS Control, Tenant Restrictions, and secure application segmentation. Answer: B Explanation: Official EDU-202 materials describe the Engineer path as focusing on advanced architecture, connectivity, platform, access control, cyberthreat protection, data protection, risk management, ZDX, and Zero Trust Automation. The published learning outcomes explicitly include: discussing the architecture of the Zscaler platform and its API infrastructure; configuring advanced connectivity options; and configuring advanced cybersecurity services and Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) — including application monitoring, call quality, probes, diagnostics, alerts, and role-based administration. These map directly to options A, C, and D, which align to Zscaler Architecture, Cyberthreat/Access Control Services (IPS, DNS Control, Tenant Restrictions, segmentation), and ZDX content in the EDU-202 outline. By contrast, Client Connector App Store “ version enablement ” and controlling which build is available when users manually or automatically update the app is documented as an administration task in the Client Connector help and is typically taught in the Essentials/Administrator (EDU-200) path, not in the Engineer path. Those materials show how to use the App Store to enable builds and control available versions, positioning it as operational client management rather than an advanced Engineer-level topic. Consequently, option B is considered out of scope for EDU-202 in the ZDTE context. Top of Form 8.A customer wants to set up an alert rule in ZDX to monitor the Wi-Fi signal on newly deployed laptops. What type of alert rule should they create? A. Network B. Device C. Interface D. Application Answer: B Explanation: Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) organizes its telemetry and alerting around key domains: Application, Network, and Device. Wi-Fi signal strength is a client-side characteristic of the endpoint itself, measured from the user ’ s device, not from the network path or the application service. In the ZDX training content, Wi-Fi signal, Wi-Fi link speed, CPU, memory, and similar metrics are clearly categorized under Device health. Download Valid ZDTE Exam Dumps for Best Preparation 6 / 6 When creating an alert rule to monitor newly deployed laptops, the administrator should therefore choose a Device-type alert and then select Wi-Fi signal – related metrics and thresholds. This allows ZDX to trigger alerts whenever the Wi-Fi signal on those endpoints falls below an acceptable level, helping operations teams quickly identify poor local wireless conditions that degrade user experience. Network alerts are intended for end-to-end path health (latency, packet loss, DNS resolution, gateway reachability, etc.), and Application alerts focus on performance and availability of specific apps or services. “ Interface ” as a standalone alert type is not how ZDX structures its top-level alert categories; interface-related metrics are surfaced as device-side attributes. Consequently, the correct classification for Wi-Fi signal monitoring in ZDX is a Device alert rule. 9.What are the valid options as criteria to create an alert rule in ZDX? A. DNS Time and Network Response Time B. Server Response Time and Packet Loss Rate C. DNS Time and Server Response Time D. Page Fetch Time and Packet Loss Rate Answer: C Explanation: Zscaler Digital Experience (ZDX) uses web probes to measure application performance from the user ’ s perspective. Official ZDX reference material and EDU/ZDTE study guides describe the four key web-probe metrics as Page Fetch Time (PFT), DNS Time, Server Response Time (Time to First Byte), and Availability. These same metrics are explicitly called out in training and exam prep as the values that can be used when defining application-level alert rules (for example, “ DNS Time > X ms ” or “ Server Response Time > Y ms ” ). ZDX documentation also explains that each alert rule type (Application, Device, Network, or Call Quality) has its own metrics and criteria, and that application alerts are driven by web-probe metrics like DNS Time and Server Response Time, while network alerts use CloudPath metrics such as latency and packet loss. Because both DNS Time and Server Response Time are application-probe metrics, they can legitimately be used together as criteria in an application-type alert rule. By contrast, combinations that mix web-probe metrics with network-only metrics (like Packet Loss Rate) or vaguely defined “ Network Response Time ” do not reflect how ZDX structures its alert criteria per type. Therefore, among the listed options, the pair that correctly represents valid ZDX alert criteria for application monitoring is DNS Time and Server Response Time. 10.Which report provides valuable visibility and insight into end-user activity involving sensitive data on endpoints? A. Malware report B. Endpoint DLP report C. Data usage report D. Incidents report Answer: B