1. Choose the correct statement : a. The smaller the therapeutic index , the safer the drug is b. The ratio of LD 50 to the ED 50 is used to calculate the therapeutic index c. It is not possible for two drugs to have the same therapeutic index d. The therapeutic index is defined as the ratio of LD01 to ED99 2. All of the following antibiotics are effective against H elicobacter p yl ori except : a. A moxicillin b. C larithromycin c. P henoxymethylpenicillin d. T etracycline 3. The risk of bleeding in oral surgery is increased if the patient takes : a. Protamine sulphate b. Etamsylate c. Phytomenadione d. Acenocoumarol 4. Which of the following oral anti diabetic drugs act through the inhibition of alpha glucos idase: a. M etformin e b. R apaglinide c. Acarbose d. Glibenclamide 5. The atypical antipsychotics : a. Block dopaminergic receptors stronger than typical drugs b. Cause metabolic disturbances more frequently than typical drugs c. Cause motor disturbances more frequently than typica l drugs d. Are less effective than typical drugs 6. Which of the following statements is correct : a. Ethambutol is associated with retrobulbar ne uritis b. Stre ptomycin is a third generation cepha l o sporin c. R ifampicin has genetically polymorphic a cety lation d. Isoniazid inhibits DNA - dependent RNA polymerase 7. The combination of which drugs is an example of receptor antagonism : a. Lidocaine and A drenaline b. Spiramycin and M etro nidazole c. Diazepam and caffeine d. Morphine and N aloxone 8. Point out the true statement : a. Butyls copolamine passes through the blood - brain barrier b. T he antidote for atropine poisoning is pilocarpine c. Galantamine is a muscarinic receptor antagonist d. S uxamethonium is used as a muscle relaxant in surgery 9. C hoose the cardioinotropic drug: a. D obutamine b. V erapam il c. Bisoprolol d. L idocaine 10. A minoglycosides inhibit: a. D ihydrofola te reductase b. B acterial cell w all synthesis c. DNA gyrase d. P r otein synthesis 11. An anti - inflammatory drug in the oral cavity is : a. Calcium peroxide b. Sodium fluoride c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Benzydamine 12. P oint out the true statement: a. M etoprolol is contraindicated in bronchial asthma b. D o butamine is a non - selective adrenomimetic c. P ipecuronium is used to quit smoking d. A drenaline ca n be administered orally 13. M echanism if antiemetic action of Metoclopramide is a ss ociated with: a. H1 - recept or blocking effect b. D2 - receptor blocking effect c. 5 - HT1 - receptor blocking effect d. M - receptor blocking effect 14. H ormonal contraceptives can lead to: a. B lood pressure decrease b. T hrombosis c. O steoporosis d. P rostat e carcinoma 15. T he tolerance: a. I s due to potentiation of the effect of one drug by another b. L eads to an increased drugs effect c. I s a result of the combined use of drugs d. R equires increasing the drug ’ s dose 16. Hypoglycemia as a n adverse side reaction does NOT occur with the use of: a. G libenclamide b. R epaglinide c. I nsulin Actrapid d. Metformin 17. D e n tin hypersensitivity is treated with drugs containing: a. C alcium peroxide b. S trontium chloride c. P otassium pyrophosp hate d. M etronidazole 18. P oint out an insulin preparation with long action: a. I nsulin Glargine b. Insulin Actrapid c. I nsulin Lispro d. Humulin R 19. P oint out the true statement: a. N SAIDS block the enzyme lipoxygenase b. C elecoxib is an NSAID with the most pronounced ulcerog enic effect c. Nime sulide is an analgesic - antipyretic d. A fter t ooth extraction it is better to avoid Acetylsalicylic acid as an analgesic 20. S curvy us the resu lt of a deficiency of: Vit C 21. Opioid analgesics may cause: a. P syc homotor activation b. R espiratory depression c. Mydriasis d. Diarrhea 22. W hich of the following drugs belongs to osmotic laxative s: a. M ac rogol b. D rotaverine c. M etoclopramide d. L operamide 23. W h ich of the drugs activates an enzyme - linked receptor: a. D imenhydrinate → g - protein coupled b. P rocaine c. B etamethasone d. I nsulin 24. Emax is a measure of: a. T he capacity of the drug to induce functional changes in the receptor b. T he dose of the drug at which all ind ividuals exhibit a therapeutic effect c. T he ability of the antagonists to displace most of the receptor bound ligands d. T he intrinsic activi ty of all non - specifically acting drugs 25. P oint out the true statement: a. D iclofenac in smal l doses has an antiplatelet effect b. P arac etamol overdose can lead to liver failure c. P arac etamol is not given to pregnant women and children d. A cetylsalicylic acid can be given without problems in patients with ulcers 26. A n an tis eptic agent for th e ora l mucosa: a. L idocaine b. C hlorohexidi ne c. P otassium pyrophosphate d. S od ium fluoride 27. C hoose the correct statement: a. T etracycline are CYP - inhibitors b. L incosamides are used for treatment of H. pylori - associated peptic ulcer disease c. Spiramycin has good distribution in the saliva and periodontium d. M etronidazole is active only against aerobic bacteria 28. W hich drugs increase the duration of act ion of local anesthetics: a. B eta - adrenergic agon ists b. A lpha - adrenergic agonists c. O pioid analgesics d. G eneral anesthetics 29. C hoose the drug that decrease plasma triglyceride levels: a. A mlodipine b. Acenocoumarol c. F enofibrate d. F olic acid 30. C hoose the WRONG statement: a. M etoprolol is suitable for a patient wit h asthma b. F urosemide is indicated in hypertensive crisis c. A typical adverse reaction of ACE - inhibitor s is dry cough d. L ido caine is used in ventricular arry thmia 31. I n childhood: a. D rugs cannot be absorbe d in the gastrointestinal tract b. D rugs cross the blood - barrier brain more easily c. D rugs have faster metabolism in the liver d. R enal exc retion of drugs is increased 32. Ny statin: a. I s used only locally b. I s used in the treatment of cryptococcal meningitis c. I nhibits the synthesis of ergosterol d. I s a CYP - inhibitor 33. C hoose the correct statements: a. C urve C belongs to a partial agonist b. C urve B represents a non - co mpet itive a ntagonist c. C urve B shows a comp etitive antagonist d. C u r ve A represents a com petitive antagonist 34. B eta - adrenergic blockers: a. C ause tachy arrhythmias b. A re not suitable for monotherapy in hypertension c. I ncrease heart rate d. A re not combined with Verapamil 35. P oint out the true statement: a. Q uaternary anticholinesterase dru gs can used for Alzheimer ’ s b. A nticholinesterase drugs are indirectly acting cholinomimetics c. Pipecuronium is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker d. A tropine is used to treat Myasthenia gravis 36. T he d uration of action of local anesthetics is prolonged by: a. M etoprolol b. A tropine c. E pinephrine d. S albutamol 37. A peripherally acting vasodilator: a. P entoxifylline b. Bisoprolol c. E pinephrine d. S imvastatin 38. C hoose a drug that blocks a ligan - gated ion channel: a. E pinephrine b. L id ocaine c. D obutamine d. P ipecuronium 39. W hich of the following is NOT an indication of beta2 - adrener gic mimetics : a. A sthma b. P remature birth c. H ypertension d. COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) 40. F or prevention and treatment of oral mucosal pain may be used: a. M etronidazole b. L i docaine c. S tron tium chloride d. C hlorhexidine 41. B enzodiazepines: a. A ctivate cal c ium channels b. B lock cholinergic receptors c. A c tivate GABA - recep tors d. A ctivate dopaminergic rece ptors 42. C hoose th e correct statement about penicillins: a. T hey affect the bacterial cell wall synthesis b. P enicillins have predominant renal excretion c. T hey are associated with allergic reactions d. A ll statements are correct 43. A ntibacterial drugs suitable for use d uring pregnancy are: a. A minopenicillins b. T etracy clines c. F luorinated quinolones d. A ll listed drugs are suitable 44. A CYP in ducer is: a. C arbamazepine b. P henytoin c. P henobarbital d. A ll of the abo ve 45. C hoose the drug that decreases plasma triglyc eride levels: a. A mlodipine b. Acenocoumarol c. F enofibrate d. F olic acid 46. D urin g pre gnancy: a. C ategory X drugs are preferred b. C ategory A drugs are preferred c. A re used teratogenic drugs only d. T h ere is no restriction on the drug ’ s use 47. T he rebound effect: a. I s a result of abrupt discontinuation of the drug after prolonged use b. L eads to a lack of drug ’ s effect c. I s o bserved with a combination of two drugs with the same mechanism of action d. R equires drug ’ s dose inc rease 48. Drug that both exert a mild antibacterial effect against H. pylori and i nhibit gastric acid secretion is: a. Famotidine b. Metoclopramide c. Omeprazole d. Lactulo se 49. B leeding after tooth extraction can be prevented by drug s containing: a. G elatin b. F ibrino lytic s c. H eparins d. W arfarin 50. Zolpidem treats: a. A nxiety b. I nsomnia c. S chizophrenia d. D epression 51. W hich of the following is NOT an indication for Adrenaline use: a. Cardiogenic shock b. H ypertension c. A naphylactic shock d. P otentiating the action of local anesthetics 52. W hich of the following effect s is NOT typical of Metamizole: a. A nti - inflammatory b. W eak antispasmodic c. A nalgesic d. A ntipyretic 53. O ral candid iasis can be treated with: a. C lindamycin b. D oxy cycline c. Z idov udine d. M iconazole 54. H1 - blockers are used in th e therapy of: a. M otion sickness b. D epression c. Xerostomia d. P eptic ulcer disease 55. T he volume of distribution: a. G i ves in formation onl y about drug in the blood b. C an not exceed the physiol ogic volume in the body c. M easures the apparent space in the body available to contain the drug d. D epends on the rate of first pass metabolism of a drug 56. ACE - inhibitors may often c ause: a. Reflex tachycardia b. G ingival hyperpl asia c. B radycardia d. H yperkalemia 57. A dissociative anesthetic is: a. H alothane b. L idocaine c. K etamine d. Midazolam 58. A common adverse reaction to Verapamil is: a. R eflex tachycardia b. D ry co ugh c. R ebound - effect d. C onstipation 59. F luo xetine: a. M ay cause serotonin syndrome b. I s administered by injection c. T reats schiz ophrenia d. I nhibits norepinephrine reuptake 60. C hoose the w rong statement about Co - trimoxazole ( sulfamethoxazole + trimeth oprim): a. I t is used in the treatment of periodontit is b. I t is associated with hematologic adverse drug reactions c. I t covers b oth Gram (+) and Gram ( - ) cocci and bacilli d. I t inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis 61. Drugs containing formaldehyde are used for : a. To reduce tooth sensitivity b. Pain relief in teething c. D evit al i z ing of the pulp d. Periodontitis treatment 62. A zoles: a. Form pores in the fungal cell membrane b. Have poor distribution and tissues and body liquid's c. Have broad spectrum anti fungal activity d. Are nephrotoxic 63. The combination A mox icillin + Cl avulanic acid is an example of : a. Function al antagonism b. Tolerance c. Potentiation d. Sup radditive synergism 64. D iazepam treats: a. D epression b. C onvulsions c. P arkins on ’ s disease d. S chizophrenia 65. Local anaesthetics block : a. C holinesterase b. Sodium channels c. Calcium channels d. Cyclooxygenase 66. An anti anginal drug is : a. Acenocoumarol b. D i goxin c. C lo nidine d. Iso sorbide dinitrate 67. In the end o f which phase of the clinical stage is the drug registered for use : a. phase 3 b. phase 1 c. phase 2 d. phase 4 68. Which is the antidysrhythmic drug : a. Amiodarone b. Enal april c. Nitro glycerin d. Sim vastatin 69. Hypoglycemia caused by insulin overdose is adverse reaction type : a. A b. B c. E d. C 70. Which of the following is not a symptom of A tropine poisoning : a. B ronchospasm b. X erostomia c. H yp er thermia d. H allucina tions 71. Which drug can cause gingival hyperplasia : a. V alsartan b. N ifedipine c. C lonidine d. F urosemide 72. All of the following drugs are antacids except : a. sodium bicarbonate b. Castor oil c. M agnesium hydroxide d. M y lanta 73. Most commonly drug cross cell membranes by process of : a. F iltration b. A ctive transport c. P inocytosis d. D iffusion 74. Which is the correct statement about the precursor of D opamine : a. I t treats depression b. I t causes hyperprolactinemia c. I t improves the symptoms of P arkinsonism d. I t facilitates cholinergic neurotransmission 75. F urosemide is not used in: a. A ngina attack b. H ypertensive crisis c. C hronic heart failure d. F orced di uresis in intoxications 76. A drug used in periodontitis is : a. M etronidazole b. Ac iclovir c. G entamicin d. Nystatin 77. Choose the curren t statement : a. G lycopeptide antibiotics are used in the treatme nt of syphilis b. Cephalosporin es are extensively metabolised from CYP3A 4 c. A minoglycosides inhibit peptidoglycan synthesis d. F l uor i n ated quinolones are associated with arthropathy and tendinopathy 78. Which of the following is a drug receptor : a. Ligand - gated ion channels b. Na/K - ATP - ase c. Voltage - gated calcium channels d. C yclooxygenase - 2 79. Vitamin involv ed in the production of coagulation factors II, VII, IX and X, is : a. Vitamin A b. V itamin C c. V itamin K d. V itamin B6 80. Choose a drug that blocks a ligand gated ion channe l : a. E pinephrine b. L idocaine c. D obutamine (g - coupled) d. P ipe cur onium 81. Tetracyclines : a. can cause hypoglycemia b. cross the blood - brain barrier at high degree c. poss ess bactericidal effect d. bind to calcium ions in the teeth and bones 82. A drug for the treatment of osteoporosis is : a. Zoledronic acid b. Rep aglinide c. Insulin d. Dexamethasone 83. According to Henderson - H asselba l ch' s equation : a. Drugs weak acids are more lipid - soluble in ac idic p H b. The speed of the absorption of a drug is proportional to its concentration gradient c. The ionised form of a weak acid is water - soluble d. All statements are correc t 84. The specific antidote in P aracetamol intoxication is : a. E thanol b. F lumazenil c. A cet yl cysteine d. N al oxone 85. Which of the following drugs is strong CYP - inducer: a. Rifampicin b. C larithromycin c. I soniazid d. C hloramphenicol 86. To treat or o dental infections M etronidazole is combined with : a. C iprofloxacin b. B enzylpenicillin c. Spiramycin d. C hloramphenicol 87. Glucocorticoids (GCS) are used for the treatment of : a. Diabetes mellitus type 1 b. Osteoporosis c. Ulcer disease d. Bronchial asthma 88. For caries prophylaxis are used drugs containing : a. Potassium pyrophosphate b. Strontium chloride c. Sodium fluoride d. Sodium bicarbonate 89. Interfer ons are drugs used in the treatment of : a. I nfluenza b. A IDS c. V iral hepatitis d. H erpetic infections 90. An analgesic - anti pyretic which most often causes allergic reactions and can lead to agranul oc ytosis is : a. Paracetamol b. I buprofen c. M etamizol e d. D iclofenac 91. For cardiogenic shock cannot be used : a. D opamine b. D obutamine c. A drenaline d. M et o prolol 92. As a teeth whitening agent is used : carbamide peroxide → hyd rogen peroxi de a. S odium fluoride b. Chlorhexidine c. Benzydamine d. C alcium peroxide 93. Which side effect is common with Prazosin: a. Orthostatic hypotension ( “ first dose effect ” ) b. Bronchoconstriction c. Rise in blood pressure d. Tremo r 94. A drug suitable for the treatment of morning sickness in pregnancy is : a. M etoclopramide b. Ondansetron c. Dimenhydrinate d. M acrogol 95. Choose the non - specifically acting antidote : a. D eferoxamine b. N aloxone c. F lumazenil d. G alantamine 96. Gum bleeding may be treat ed with : a. S ildenafil b. M etoprolol c. A scorbic acid d. Heparin 97. Which drug is used in hypertensive crisis : a. L idocaine b. A mlodipine c. C lonidine d. S imvastatin 98. Which vitamin is important for synthesis of rhodopsin (eye pigment responsible for adaptation in low light ): a. V itamin B1 b. V itamin A c. V itamin C d. V itamin D 99. An anti androgen drug used for the treatment of prostate cancer is : a. Milli gest b. F inasteride c. Alendronic acid d. F lutamide 100. Choose an antiviral drug for the treatment of labial herpetic infection : a. Aciclovir b. R itonavir c. R imantadine d. Oseltamivir 101. Which drug name is given by the pharmaceutical company and might suggest the drug effect : a. T rade / brand name b. International nonproprietary name c. Chemical name 102. Company code name A typical effect of dobutamine is: a. Sedation b. Dilation of renal blood vessels c. Positive i o notropic effect d. Xerostomia 103. Beta - 2 - adrenergic agonists are indicated in: a. Heart failure b. Bronchial asthma c. Hyperglycemia d. Tremor 104. The true statement regarding suxamethonium is: a. It inhibits the acetylcholinesterase b. Its effect can be antagonized by anticholinesterase drugs c. It is degraded by plasma pseudocholinesterase d. Can be used to antagonize non - depolarizing muscle relaxants 105. Prazosin: a. Is a no n - selective alpha antagonist b. Is combined with local anesthesia c. May cause orthostatic hypotension d. Is contraindicated in prostate hyperplasia 106. Clonidine: a. Can cause psychostimulation b. Is an antidysrhythmic drug c. Can cause sedation and depression d. Is used for the treatment of rhinitis 107. The effect of activation of muscarinic receptors is: a. Increases intraocular pressure b. Xerostomia c. Bradycardia d. Skeletal muscle contraction 108. An antidote in organophosphate poisoning is: a. Atropine at high dose b. Cholinomimetics indirectly a cting on muscarinic and nicotinic receptors c. Nicotinic agonists d. Galantamine at a high dose 109. The false statement is: a. Celecoxib is a selective COX - 2 inhibitor b. Diclofenac is used to treat musculoskeletal inflammatory disorders c. Metami z ole is ulcerogenic d. Acetylsalicylic acid is used as an antiplatelet drug e. Nimesulide is a relatively sel ective COX - 2 inhibitor 110. The antiplatelet effect of acetylsalicylic acid: a. Has no clinical benefit b. Is due to reduced production of TxA2 c. Is due to reduced production of PGE2 d. Is due to inhibition of the coagulation cascade 111. The selective COX - 2 inhibitor is: a. Cyclopentolate b. Metamizole c. Celecoxib d. Naproxen 112. Acetylsalicylic acid is indicated in: a. Prevention of arterial thrombosis b. Tooth extraction c. Gout attack d. Viral infection in children 113. A drug with pronounced effects in the heart is: a. Atro pine b. Obidoxime c. Pilocarpine d. Suxamethonium 114. The drug dilating the pupils is: a. Obidoxime b. Cyclopentolate c. Ipratropium d. Pipecuronium 115. Atropine: a. Inhibits the release of acetylcholine b. Blocks the acetylcholinesterase c. Penetrates through the blood - brain barrier d. Reduces the secretion of norepinephrine 116. Muscarinic agonists: a. Cause vasoconstriction b. Are used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease c. May be used in the treatment of organophosphate intoxication d. Reduce the intraocular pressure 117. Beta blockers are contraindica ted in: a. Migraine prophylaxis b. Sinus tachycardia c. Heart failure d. Bronchial asthma 118. A drug for migraine pro p hylaxis is: a. Propra n olol b. Dobutamine c. Xylometazoline d. Salbutamol 119. Galantamine: a. Can be used for the treatment of bradycardia b. Causes mydriasis c. Is used for the treatment of myasthenia gravis d. Can be used in combination with obidoxime in muscarine poisoning 120. Galantamine is contraindicated in: a. Atropine poisoning b. Bronchial asthma c. Myasthenia gravis d. Postoperative GI paralysis 121. A dosage form for enteral use is: a. Rectal supp ository b. Nasal drops c. Vaginal suppository d. TTS 122. An extemporal drug form: a. Is made in the pharmacy b. Could be TTS c. Is used only by topical application d. Is produced in a laboratory 123. The semi - solid dosage form that provides the least penetration of the drug through the skin is: a. Pulvis b. Paste c. TTS d. Ointment 124. A drug that can cause serious bone marrow suppression is: a. Metamizole b. Naproxen c. Ibuprofen d. Celecoxib 125. The correct statement is: a. Paracetamol has analgesic and antipyretic effects b. Acetylsalicylic acid can not be used as an antipyretic c. Nimesulide is a weak anti - inflammatory drug d. Naproxen is a selective COX - 2 inhibitor 126. Metamizole: a. Is used in headache b. Is an anticholinesterase drug c. Is used only topically d. Is a drug of choice in pregnant women e. it possesses powerful anti - inflammatory activity f. it is contraindicated in peptic ulcer disease 127. Competitive antagonists: a. Reduce the e ffic a cy of the agonists b. Shifts the curve to the left c. Reduce the affinity of the agonists d. Increase the affinity of the agonists 128. Pharmacodynamics studies: a. Drug effects b. Routes of drug administration c. Drug bioavailability d. Transmembrane passage of drug molecule 129. An endogenous agonist of enzyme - linked receptors is: a. Erythropoietin b. Acetylcholine c. Steroid hormones d. Dopamine 130. Kd is a measure of: a. Binding to plasma proteins b. Affinity c. Potency d. Volume of distribution 131. The partial agonist: a. Elicits submaximal responses b. Has no efficacy c. Has an effect opposite to antagonist d. Has an effect opposite to agonist 132. The G - protein ‘2’ (Gs): a. Stimulates phospholipase A b. Stimulates adenylyl cyclase c. Increases membrane permeability for Na+ d. Stimulates guanylyl cyclase 133. Ligand - gated ion channels: a. Elicit the fastest effects b. Bind to G - proteins c. Can not be antagonized d. Elicit effects between minutes to hours 134. The q uantal dose - response curve : a. Reflects the dependence of the effect on the dose in a single subject b. Helps to identify the EC50 of a new drug c. Provides information about the drug’s volume of distribution d. Reflects the inter - individual variability in the sensitivity to drugs 135. The true sta te men t about lipid - soluble drugs is: a. They are not metabolized b. They use aqueous diffusion as a transmembrane passage c. They typically have good absorption d. They are excreted predominantly with the urine 136. The phase I reactions of biotransformation can result in: a. Inactivation of the drug b. Activation of the drug c. Conversion of the drug into a toxic molecule or with new activity d. All of the above 137. Lipid diffusion d oes not depend on: a. Concentration gradient b. Transporters c. Area through which it takes place d. Degree of ionization of drug molecules 138. Cytochrome P450: a. Is an enzyme which accomplishes non microsomal oxidation b. Participates in drug excretion c. Is a superfamily of enzymes d. Regulates drug distribution 139. A drug weak acid is best absorbable at: a. pH 2 b. pH 10.5 c. any pH d. neutral pH 140. S uitable for preoral administration is a drug that: a. Is a substrate f or peptidases b. Is acid - unstable c. Does not have extensive first - pass metabolism d. Is not absorbed from the intestinal mucosa 141. The “first - pass effect” of the drugs is due to: a. High Vd (volume of distribution) b. Blood brain barrier c. Metabolism d. Absorption 142. The therapeutic index: a. Can never be the same for two drugs b. Is used to compare drug efficacies c. Depends on the values of ED50 and LD99 d. The higher the index, the safer the drug 143. Which of the following IS NOT a specifically acting drug: a. Metoprolol b. Pipecuronium c. Mannitol d. Ipratro pium 144. A ligand for the ligand - gated ion channels is: a. Adrenaline b. Insulin c. Lidocaine d. GABA 145. The quantal dose - response curve: a. Is based on experimental data b. Allow us to calculate EC50 and Emax c. Measures the effect of a drug in an organ d. Measures the effect of a drug in one person 146. Choose the correct statement: a. Full agonists antagonize the action of the partial agonists b. The physiological agonist of a receptor is not considered a ligand c. Antagonists have efficacy d. Partial agonist can antagonize the action of the full agonist 147. An example of a non - specific drug - action: a. Enzymatic inhibition b. Osmotic activity c. Activation of protein - coupled receptors d. Inhibition of voltage - gated ion channels 148. Which IS NOT a property of the receptor - acting drugs: a. Intrinsic activity b. Drug potency c. Affinity d. Saturation 149. Which of the following is a drug effect: a. Specific b. Therapeutic c. Non - specific d. Receptor binding 150. Which IS NOT an indication of the u se of galantamine: a. Bowel atony and paralysis b. Postpartum urinary retention c. Atropine intoxication d. S uxame thonium intoxication 151. The release of acetylcholine depends on: a. The import of tyrosine presynaptically b. The opening of presynaptic Ca2+ channels c. The binding of suxamethonium to N - receptors d. The activity of the pseudocholinesterase 152. The parasympathetic stimulati on is associated with: a. Decreased GI peristalsis b. Decreased bladder contraction c. Decreased heart rate d. Decreased bile release 153. Pilocarpine: a. Acts as an indirect cholinomimetic b. Produces mydriasis c. Is used in atropine poisoning d. Decreases the intraocular pressure 154. Non - depolarizing neuromuscular blockers: a. Can be taken orally b. Are used during surgery c. Cause a muscle contraction d. Obidoxime antagonizes their effects 155. Which effect is associated with M 1 - receptors activation: a. Decreased heart rate b. Decreased salivation c. Sphincter muscles relaxation d. Increases HCl secretion 156. The stimulation of the Nn receptors: a. decreases the release if norepinephrine b. Is responsible for epinephrine release from the adrenal c. Is responsible for muscle contractions d. Is due to binding of norepinephrine to them 157. What is the correct answer about the drug Suxamethonium: a. is effectively antagonized by anticholinesterase drugs b. is used in short surgical procedures c. is indicated in myasthenia gravis d. is a competitive nicotinic antagonist 158. Non - competitive antagonists: a. reduce the potency of agonists b. reduce the efficacy of agonists c. increase the selectivity of agonists d. increase the affinity of agonists 159. bronchial asthma is a contraindication for the u se of: a. tiotropium b. salbutamol c. hexoprenaline d. propranolol 160. An effect for atropine is: a. spasm of accommodation b. bronchoconstriction c. inhibition of peristalsis d. sweating 161. Beta - 2 - adrenoreceptor agonists are used in: a. glaucoma b. premature labour c. hypotension d. tremor 162. The correct statement is: a. atropine is a muscarinic antagonist b. scopolamine is a muscarinic agonist c. darifenacin is a nicotinic agonist d. galantamine is a nicotinic antagonist 163. Solifenacin is used in the therapy of: a. tachycardia b. urinary incontinence c. paralytic ileus d. glaucoma 164. A second messenger of Gq coupled protein is: a. cGMP b. cAMP c. IP3 d. angiotensin II 165. What is the clinical indication of the drug Doxazosin: a. tachyarrhythmia b. glaucoma c. prostate hyperplasia d. hypotension 166. Inhibition of drug - meta bolizing enzymes can result in:? a. Prolongation of the drug’s half - life b. increased bioavailability of the drug c. increased intestinal absorption of the drug d. increased volume of distribution of the drug 167. The true statement regarding facilitated diffusion is: a. requires energy b. it is a type of active transport c. a carrier is not required d. it takes place according to concentration gradient 168. The effect of activation of Nm receptors is: a. skeletal muscle contraction b. ur inary retention c. decreased gastrointestinal motility d. tachycardia 169. The false statement about binding of drugs to plasma proteins is: a. this is a place for drug interactions b. the bound molecules are pharmacologically active c. drugs which are bound to plasma protein s are excreted slower d. the bound and unbound fraction of the drug are in equilibrium 170. Which is the most potent drug: a. drug C - EC50 = 75; Emax = 15 b. drug D - EC50 = 90; Emax = 65 c. drug A - EC50 = 20; Emax = 75 d. drug B - EC50 = 40; Emax = 95 171. Affinity: a. is measured by Emax b. is measured by EC50 c. is measured by ED50 d. is a feature of all ligands 172. An enteral route for drug administration is: a. transdermal b. by inhalation c. vaginal d. rectal 173. Which dosage form does not allow modified release of the drug: a. powder b. tablet c. granules d. capsule 174. The pH of the urine affects the drug:? a. distribution b. tubular secretion c. tubular reabsorption d. filtration in the glomerulus 175. Insulin binds to: a. ligand - gated ion channels b. G - protein - coupled receptors c. intracellular receptors d. enzyme - linked receptors 176. It is true for phase II metabolism that:? a. the drug metabolites are more water - soluble and easily excreted b. these are catabolic reactions c. activation of prodrugs is a possible result d. these are reactions of oxidation 177. The true statement about barrier systems is that:? a. hydrophilic drugs can cross blood - brain barrier readily b. enzymes and transporters (Pgp) are expressed on barriers c. placental barrier is more strict than the blood - brain barri er d. blood - brain barrier is present in all parts of the brain without exceptions 178. The true statement: a. scopolamine imporives memory and learning ability b. atropine is an antidote of non - depolarizing neuromuscular blockers c. pilocarpine is contraindicated in glaucoma d. ipratropium causes dry mouth 179. Liquid dosage form mixture of oil and water is: a. emulsion b. paste c. solution d. suspension 180. Myasthenia gravis can be treated with: a. pilocarpine b. neostigmine c. butylscopolamine d. atropine 181. Cyclopentolate: a. is a peripheral myorelaxant b. is injected intravenously c. is contraindicated in bronchial asthma d. causes mydriasis 182. The false statement: a. scopolamine is lipid soluble b. pilocarpine treats biliary colic c. M - cholinergic blockers cause urinary retention d. atropine intoxication is treated with galantamine 183. Which anticholinesterase drug cross the blood - brain barrier? a. varenicline b. rivastigmine c. neostigmine d. pyridostigmine 184. The multidose dosage form is: a. syrup b. capsule c. ampule d. suppository 185. Choose the correct statement about an extemporal drug form: a. it contains only OTC (without prescription) drugs b. it is a pharmaceutical product c. it is prepared by a pharmacist in pharmacy d. it does not require a prescription 186. 1.5 grams are equal to: a. 10.5 mg b. 150 mg c. 1.5 mg d. 1500 mg 187. A drug indicated in cardiogenic shock is: a. darifenacine b. salbutamol c. dobutamine d. clonidine 188. Intoxication with irreversible inhibi tors of cholinesterase is characterised with: a. tachycardia b. constipation c. dry mouth d. difficulty breathing 189. Point out a drug with sympatholytic effects: a. dobutamine b. isoprenaline c. salbutamol d. clonidine 190. Which of the following drugs is indicated in the treatment of arterial hypertension: a. midodrine b. epinephrine c. prazosin d. salmeterol 191. Symptoms of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia may be improved by: a. alpha - 1 adrenoceptor agonists b. alpha - 1 adren oceptor antagonists c. beta - 1 adrenoceptor antagonists d. alpha - 2 adrenoceptor agonists 192. Which of the statements for beta - 2 agonists is NOT correct: a. they produce bronchodilation b. they cause tremor as an adverse effect c. they produce vasodilation in the skeletal muscles d. they have bradycardia as an adverse effect 193. The concentration of a drug, at which 50% of the receptors are occupied, is: a. Kd b. EC50 c. ED50 d. Emax 194. Butylscopolamine: a. causes dry mouth b. blocks nicotinic receptors c. easily crosses the BBB d. treats myasthenia gravis 195. Donepezil: a. is a quaternary amine b. is used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease c. is administered parenterally d. leads to constipation as an adverse drug reaction 196. the false statement about enterohepatic recirculation is:? a. it prolonged the plasma half - life of the drug b. it depends on drug’s ionization c. it depends on intestinal bacteria d. it is typical for drugs metabolized by glucuronidation 197. inverse agonists: a. have negati ve efficacy b. have no potency c. have no efficacy d. have no affinity 198. The correct statement is: a. clonidine is a selective alpha - 2 adrenoreceptor agonist b. midodrine is an indirect - acting alpha - 2 adrenoceptor antagonist c. epinephrine is a selective beta - 2 adrenoceptor a gonist d. dobutamine is a selective alpha - 1 adrenoceptor agonist 199. Which of the following drugs does not have an urospasmolytic effect: a. darifenacin b. oxybutynin c. rivastigmine d. atropine 200. Capsules: a. are for rectal use only b. can be single - dose or multidose dosage form c. can be soft and hard d. do not allow modified release of the drug 201. 0.07 grams are equal to: a. 700 mg b. 7 mg c. 0.7 mg d. 70 mg 202. Which drug is suitable for treatment of hyperthyroidism? a. salbutamol b. adrenaline c. carbachol d. propranolo l 203. What is typical for the non - specifically acting drugs:? a. they act by simple chemical and physical reactions b. their action is easily antagonized c. they are 99% of all drugs d. they act at low doses 204. Which of the following statements is an adverse reaction of beta blockers? a. dyslipidemia (increased LDL/ decreased HDL) b. atrial fibrillation c. impairment of the vision d. hyperglycaemia 205. The wrong statement regarding oral bioavailability of drugs is: a. it is defined as the fraction of the applied drug that reaches systemic circulation b. it depends on the presence of barrier systems c. it is maximal when the drug is applied intravenously d. it is low in acid - unstable drugs and in drugs prone to first - pass effect 206. Water diffusi on: a. does not require energy b. is typical in lipophilic drugs c. is a type of active transport d. requires a carrier protein 207. The correct statement about pilocarpine is: a. it causes eye dryness b. it increases intraocular pressure c. it causes spasm of accommodation d. all statement are correct 208. Which route of administration provides only local action a. vaginal b. rectal c. buccal d. transdermal 209. The blockade of beta adrenergic receptors in the eye cause: a. decrease in the intraocular pressure b. increase in the intraocular pressure c. mydriasis d. miosis 210. The dosage forms for injection: a. are sterile b. are multidose only c. are only solutions d. do not allow prolong release of the drug 211. Which of the following is accurate? a. suxamethonium is a depolarizing neuromuscular - blocking drug b. atracurium stimulates muscarinic receptors c. pipecuronium activates nicotinic receptors d. botulinum toxin is indicated in m yasthenia gravis 212. The true statement regarding glomerular filtration is: a. is a place for drug interactions b. requires a carrier protein c. hydrostatic pressure is its driving force d. is typical for drugs bound to plasma proteins 213. Graded dose - response curves allow th e determination of: a. Emax b. therapeutic index c. ED50 d. LD50 214. Which of the following would be used as a topical vasoconstrictor for a patient with epistaxis (nose bleeding): a. xylometazoline b. salbutamol c. timolol d. doxazosin 215. Darifenacin: a. treats atropine intoxication b. is indicated in urinary incontinence c. causes hypersalivatio n d. is a selective M2 - cholinergic blocker 216. Active transport: a. requires energy b. requires a membrane transporter c. follows the direction of concentration gradient d. includes the processes aqueous, lipid and facilitated diffusion 217. Low oral bioavailability may result fr om: a. first - pass liver metabolism b. fast renal excretion c. high affinity to tissue proteins d. low absorption 218. If a drug has a small and very polar molecule, its Vd is:? a. larger than the volume of total body water b. similar to the volume of plasma c. similar to the volume of total body water d. similar to the volume of total extracellular fluid 219. Phase II reactions of biotransformation are: a. sulfation b. hydrolysis c. acetylation d. reduction 220. Which drugs undergo a glomerular filtration ? ? a. polar drugs b. drugs which are not bound to plasma proteins c. drugs which are bound to tissue proteins d. drugs with high molecular weight 221. Endogenous agonists of G - protein coupled receptors are: a. insulin b. norepinephrine c. cortisol d. acetylcholine 222. Which characteristic data may be determined using a graded dose - response curve? a. EC50 b. ED50 c. LD50 d. Emax 223. Which of the statements about inverse agonists are true: a. their intrinsic activity is equal to 0 b. their efficacy is negative c. they have no affinity d. they bind p redominantly the receptors in resting state 224. Certain safety factor is: a. LD50/ED50 b. LD01/ED99 (lethal dose to 1%/effective dose to 99%) c. LD99/ED01 d. ED50/LD50 225. Passive transport: a. requires energy b. always requires a transporter c. follows the direction of concentration gradient d. includes the processes aqueous, lipid and facilitated diffusion 226. The first - pass effect is completely avoided in: a. intravenous administration b. oral administration c. rectal administration (this also reduces the firs t pass effect but a is more correct) d. sublingual administration 227. If a drug is highly bound to plasma proteins, its Vd is:? a. larger than the volume of total body water b. similar to the volume of plasma c. similar to the volume of total body water d. similar to the volume of extracellular fluid 228. The correct statement abo ut opioid dependence is: a. Opioid antagonists relieve the symptoms of abstinence syndrome b. Opioids have a mild addictive potential c. Physic al dependence is manifested by abstinence syndrome upon withdrawal d. Physical dependence results from euphoria 229. Choose the co rrect statement about the pharmacokinetics of morphine: a. It is readily excreted with the breast milk b. It undergoes a phase 1 and 2 metabolism c. It is converted to codeine d. The plasma half - life is about 72hrs 230. Choose the WRONG statement about mechanism of action of opioids: a. They inhibit the release of excitatory transmitters b. They activate the GABA A - receptors c. They inhibit the nociceptive afferent neuron d. They inhibit the dorsal horn pain transmission neurons 231. Opioids are used for the treatment of: a. Acute abdomen b. Tooth ache c. Burns d. Cranial trauma 232. Choose the correct statement about opioid analgesics: a. Codeine acts only on the k - opioid receptors b. Pethidine is a partial agonist at the opioid receptors c. Morphine does not produce dependence d. Morphine is a full agonist at the μ - opioid receptor 233. Dependence is less common with: a. Fentanyl b. Morphine c. Tramadol d. Pethidine 234. An opioid, which blocks muscarinic receptors is: a. Dihydrocodeine b. Morphine c. Pethidine d. Methadone 235. The opioid used for the treatment of abstinence syndrome is: a. Tramadol b. Naloxo ne c. Codeine d. Methadone 236. There is no tolerance to the following effect of opioid analgesics: a. Sedation b. Constipation c. Respiratory depression d. Analgesia 237. An opioid available in the form of TTS is: a. Fentanyl