Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 1 / 13 Exam : 100-140 Title : https://www.cert007.com/exam/100-140/ Cisco Certified Support Technician (CCST) IT Support Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 2 / 13 1 A company wants to reduce its IT support costs without sacrificing service quality. Which KPI would be most helpful in identifying potential cost-saving areas while maintaining service standards? A. Average handle time per ticket B. Total number of tickets received per month C. Ratio of escalated versus resolved tickets D. Cost per ticket Answer: D Explanation: The cost per ticket KPI is essential for identifying how much is being spent per issue handled. This KPI helps in pinpointing inefficiencies in the support process and areas where resources may be optimized without compromising service quality. Option A is incorrect because while average handle time provides efficiency insights, it does not directly relate to cost management. Option B is incorrect as the total number of tickets does not provide direct insights into cost efficiency or areas for cost reduction. Option C is incorrect because the escalation ratio focuses more on the quality or complexity of service rather than cost efficiency. 2.Following a merger, an IT department needs to ensure its support services remain robust. Which KPI should be closely monitored to assess the impact of the merger on help desk performance? A. Change in the number of support tickets after the merger B. Employee turnover rate in the IT department C. Average resolution time for support tickets D. Percentage of IT budget spent on help desk operations Answer: C Explanation: Monitoring the average resolution time for support tickets after a merger is crucial as it provides direct insights into whether the merger has affected the help desk ’ s ability to resolve issues efficiently. An increase in resolution time might indicate integration issues or increased complexity in IT support demands. Option A is incorrect because a mere change in the number of tickets does not directly indicate performance quality; it could merely reflect increased demand or broader service scope. Option B is incorrect as employee turnover gives insights into staff satisfaction and stability but not direct help desk performance. Option D is incorrect because the percentage of the IT budget spent on help desk operations reflects financial management rather than operational effectiveness. 3.What must be enabled on a Windows computer to allow mapping of an SMB network drive? A. Internet Information Services (IIS) B. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) C. File and Printer Sharing D. Hyper-V Answer: C Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 3 / 13 Explanation: File and Printer Sharing must be enabled on a Windows computer to allow other devices on the network to access files and printers and to permit the mapping of drives over the network. Option A is incorrect because Internet Information Services (IIS) is used for hosting web services, not for SMB network drive mapping. Option B is incorrect as Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is used for remote desktop connections, not for mapping network drives. Option D is incorrect because Hyper-V is a virtualization technology and does not directly relate to network drive mapping. 4.Which protocol is primarily used when a user attempts to map a drive to access files stored on a cloud service like Box? A. SMB B. FTP C. WebDAV D. SNMP Answer: C Explanation: WebDAV WebDAV (Web Distributed Authoring and Versioning) is the protocol commonly used to map network drives that access files stored on cloud services like Box, enabling users to manage and edit files remotely. Option A is incorrect because SMB is typically used for local network file sharing, not for cloud services. Option B is incorrect as FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is generally used for transferring files directly and is less common for drive mapping. Option D is incorrect because SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is used for managing network and devices on IP networks, not for mapping drives to cloud services. 5.What is the primary purpose of the gpupdate command in a Windows environment? A. To update the system's time with the network time protocol B. To reinstall the operating system C. To refresh Group Policy settings immediately D. To check the disk space on all connected drives Answer: C Explanation: To refresh Group Policy settings immediately Gpupdate is a command-line tool used to force a Group Policy update immediately, ensuring that any changes made in Group Policy are applied quickly without waiting for the next periodic update. Option A is incorrect because updating the system ’ s time with the network time protocol is handled by the w32tm or similar commands. Option B is incorrect as reinstalling the operating system is not a function of gpupdate. Option D is incorrect because checking the disk space is typically done with the diskpart or chkdsk commands. 6.Which command can be used to force a background update of all Group Policy settings, including Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 4 / 13 security settings, without logging off? A. gpupdate /logoff B. gpupdate /force C. gpupdate /sync D. gpupdate /boot Answer: B Explanation: The gpupdate /force command re-applies every policy, new and old, which effectively refreshes all settings that are set by the prevailing group policies, including security settings, without the need for logging off or restarting the computer. Option A is incorrect because gpupdate /logoff forces a logoff after the Group Policy settings have been updated, which is necessary when the changes cannot be applied while the user is logged on. Option C is incorrect as gpupdate /sync causes the computer to wait for the next computer startup or user logon to apply the policy changes synchronously. Option D is incorrect because gpupdate /boot forces a reboot of the computer to apply policies that can only be applied during boot. 7.What happens if the gpupdate /force command is unable to apply one or more policy settings during its execution? A. The command will make multiple attempts until successful B. The command will ignore all failed settings and continue C. The command will halt at the first error encountered D. The command will log the issue and continue applying other policies Answer: D Explanation: The command will log the issue and continue applying other policies When gpupdate /force encounters an error applying a policy, it logs the failure and continues with the next policy setting. This allows for the application of as many updates as possible, identifying specific issues without halting the entire process. Option A is incorrect because gpupdate does not repeatedly attempt to apply a policy setting if it fails initially. Option B is incorrect as it does not simply ignore failed settings; it logs them. Option C is incorrect because the command does not halt at the first error; it continues with other policies. 8.A technician finds a small fire has started in a trash bin near workstations while performing end-of-day duties. What should be the technician ’ s first course of action? A. Attempt to extinguish the fire using a water-based extinguisher B. Evacuate the area and immediately alert the fire department C. Remove flammable materials from the vicinity of the trash bin to prevent the fire from spreading D. Use a cloth or blanket to smother the flames Answer: B Explanation: Evacuate the area and immediately alert the fire department The first priority in the event of a fire is to ensure personal safety and that of others by evacuating the area and alerting the fire department, even if Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 5 / 13 the fire appears small and contained. Option A is incorrect because using a water-based extinguisher on potential electrical or chemical fires commonly found in office environments can be hazardous. Option C is incorrect because attempting to move flammable materials could endanger the individual by exposing them to the fire. Option D is incorrect because smothering the flames does not guarantee the fire will be controlled safely, and it can risk personal safety. 9.While inspecting the IT department ’ s storage area, a technician discovers that power strips are daisy-chained together and are showing signs of wear. What is the most appropriate safety action to take regarding fire prevention? A. Ignore the issue as it is common practice in busy IT departments B. Replace the worn power strips and ensure no power strips are daisy-chained together C. Cover the worn areas with electrical tape to prevent exposure Answer: B Explanation: Replace the worn power strips and ensure no power strips are daisy-chained together Replacing worn power strips and correcting improper use, such as daisy-chaining, adheres to fire safety guidelines by reducing the risk of electrical fires due to overloading and wear. Option A is incorrect because ignoring the issue could lead to a serious fire hazard. Option C is incorrect because using electrical tape is a temporary fix that does not address the fundamental safety risk of worn and improperly used power strips. Option D is incorrect because simply rearranging equipment does not resolve the underlying safety issue of using worn and improperly connected power strips. 10.A technician is scheduled to replace a broken LCD screen on a laptop. What is the most important safety procedure to follow before starting the repair? A. Work on a metal surface to keep the tools organized B. Disconnect the laptop from any power source and remove the battery C. Start by cleaning the broken screen with a wet cloth D. Test the broken screen one more time to ensure it is not functioning Answer: B Explanation: Disconnect the laptop from any power source and remove the battery To ensure personal safety, it is essential to disconnect the laptop from all power sources and remove the battery before starting any repair, especially on electrical components like an LCD screen. This prevents any electrical shock or short-circuiting during the repair. Option A is incorrect because working on a metal surface could increase the risk of electrical conductivity and shock. Option C is incorrect because using a wet cloth can lead to moisture entering the device, which is hazardous. Option D is incorrect as testing the screen while connected to a power source can be dangerous and does not contribute to personal safety. Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 6 / 13 11.When installing new hardware inside a desktop computer, which safety measure should a technician take to avoid personal injury? A. Install the hardware as quickly as possible to reduce exposure to the internal components B. Ensure all power sources are disconnected and the area is well-lit C. Apply lubricant to screws to make installation easier and faster D. Wear gloves to protect against sharp edges inside the computer casing Answer: B Explanation: Ensure all power sources are disconnected and the area is well-lit Disconnecting all power sources before working on a computer is crucial to avoid electrical shock, and working in a well-lit area helps in avoiding physical injury by clearly seeing the components being handled, thereby preventing mishandling. Option A is incorrect because the speed of installation does not necessarily correlate with safety and can lead to mistakes. Option C is incorrect because using lubricant on screws is not a standard safety procedure and could damage the hardware. Option D is incorrect as wearing gloves might hinder the ability to handle small components and does not protect against electrical hazards. 12.A technician needs to check network cables in a tight and cluttered server room. What safety precaution is most important to prevent accidents? A. Move quickly through the server room to minimize time spent in a confined space B. Use appropriate signage to indicate maintenance is in progress and secure loose cables before beginning work C. Bring additional lighting to use if the server room lighting is insufficient D. Keep all tools in a belt to avoid leaving them on the floor Answer: B Explanation: Use appropriate signage to indicate maintenance is in progress and secure loose cables before beginning work Using signage to indicate that maintenance work is being carried out helps prevent others from entering and possibly interfering with the equipment or tripping over unsecured cables. Securing cables also minimizes the risk of tripping, which is crucial in a cluttered environment. Option A is incorrect because moving quickly can increase the risk of tripping or damaging equipment. Option C is incorrect as additional lighting, while helpful, does not prevent tripping hazards or physical injuries from unsecured cables. Option D is incorrect because keeping tools in a belt, although useful for organization, does not address the main safety concerns in a cluttered server room. 13.What is the most important security measure to implement when using VNC to provide remote support to an end user ’ s device? A. Ensure the VNC session is configured to allow file transfers by default B. Use a strong, unique password for each VNC session and ensure it is encrypted C. Set the VNC viewer to fullscreen mode to better observe the user's screen D. Allow the user to control the VNC session to maintain their autonomy Answer: B Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 7 / 13 Explanation: Use a strong, unique password for each VNC session and ensure it is encrypted Using strong, unique passwords for each session, coupled with encryption, is crucial to protect the data integrity and privacy of the user during a VNC session. Option A is incorrect because enabling file transfers by default could pose a security risk if not strictly necessary. Option C is incorrect because fullscreen mode does not enhance security, it only affects the visibility of the session. Option D is incorrect as allowing the user to control the session might hinder the technician ’ s ability to troubleshoot efficiently and does not necessarily improve security. 14.A Linux user is setting up a home server and needs to confirm their IPv6 address for proper configuration. What command should the IT support technician recommend they use? A. sudo dhclient -6 B. hostname -I C. ip -6 addr D. netstat -rn Answer: C Explanation: ip -6 addr The ip -6 addr command is specifically designed to display IPv6 addresses associated with all network interfaces. It provides a clear and concise listing, making it ideal for users needing to verify or configure network settings related to IPv6. Option A is incorrect because sudo dhclient -6 is used to obtain or renew an IPv6 address from a DHCP server, not to display existing configurations. Option B is incorrect because hostname -I shows all network addresses (both IPv4 and IPv6) without distinguishing between them, which can be confusing. Option D is incorrect because netstat -rn displays routing tables, which focus more on routes than on displaying specific interface addresses. 15.During a VNC session, how should a technician respond if they need to access confidential files on the user ’ s computer to resolve an issue? A. Access the files without notifying the user, as they have already consented to the session B. Notify the user and request permission before accessing any confidential files C. Avoid accessing the files and ask the user to open them instead D. Record the session as evidence of the necessity for accessing confidential files Answer: B Explanation: Notify the user and request permission before accessing any confidential files It is critical to maintain transparency and trust by notifying the user and requesting permission prior to accessing any confidential files, which respects their privacy and adheres to ethical guidelines. Option A is incorrect because even with initial consent, accessing sensitive files requires explicit ongoing consent. Option C is incorrect because it might not resolve the issue if the technician needs direct access to Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 8 / 13 properly troubleshoot. Option D is incorrect as recording the session without explicit consent can violate privacy laws and does not address the need for permission to access sensitive information. 16.What is the best practice when an employee receives an email that appears to be from their bank asking for immediate verification of their login details? A. Reply directly to the email with the requested information to avoid account suspension B. Ignore the email as banks do not contact customers via email C. Contact the bank using a verified phone number to check the legitimacy of the request D. Forward the email to a colleague to get their opinion Answer: C Explanation: Correct Answer. C. Contact the bank using a verified phone number to check the legitimacy of the request Contacting the bank directly via a verified phone number ensures that the employee does not fall prey to phishing by verifying the authenticity of the communication through secure means. Option A is incorrect because replying directly to the email could lead to personal information being sent to phishers. Option B is incorrect because while banks typically do not ask for sensitive information via email, ignoring the email does not confirm whether there is a genuine issue with the account. Option D is incorrect because forwarding the email does not address the verification of the request and could potentially expose more people to the phishing attempt. 17.An employee clicks on a link in an email that they later suspect to be a phishing attempt. What is the first action they should take? A. Continue working and monitor the system for any unusual activity B. Immediately change all their passwords C. Disconnect their computer from the internet and report the incident to IT security D. Delete the email to prevent further risk Answer: C Explanation: Correct Answer. C. Disconnect their computer from the internet and report the incident to IT security Disconnecting the computer helps prevent any potential malware from communicating with its controller or spreading to other systems, and reporting to IT security allows for a proper response to the incident. Option A is incorrect because continuing to work without taking action could allow potential malware or a breach to worsen. Option B is incorrect because changing passwords immediately without first securing the system might not prevent further damage if malware has been installed. Option D is incorrect because simply deleting the email does not mitigate the risk if the link has already been clicked. 18.A user ’ s laptop that was encrypted with BitLocker has been recovered after being lost. The user does not remember the BitLocker password but has access to their Microsoft account. What is the best next step to regain access to the laptop? A. Perform a system restore to remove BitLocker Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 9 / 13 B. Use the BitLocker recovery key linked to their Microsoft account C. Reinstall the Windows operating system D. Reset the BIOS settings Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer. B. Use the BitLocker recovery key linked to their Microsoft account BitLocker integrates with a user ’ s Microsoft account, where a backup of the recovery key is often saved, allowing the user to regain access to their encrypted device. Option A is incorrect because a system restore cannot bypass or remove BitLocker encryption Option C is incorrect because reinstalling Windows would result in data loss and should only be considered if all recovery options fail Option D is incorrect because BIOS settings do not affect BitLocker encryption or the recovery process 19.During a routine security check, a user discovers they do not have a recorded BitLocker recovery key for their device. What should they do first to ensure they can recover their system in the event of a lockout? A. Encrypt the drive again with BitLocker to generate a new key B. Back up their data to an external drive and disable BitLocker C. Use the BitLocker management tool to back up the recovery key D. Change the BitLocker password to reset the recovery key Answer: C Explanation: Correct Answer. C. Use the BitLocker management tool to back up the recovery key The BitLocker management tool allows users to back up their recovery key by printing it, saving it to a file, or saving it to their Microsoft account, ensuring they have access to it if needed. Option A is incorrect because re-encrypting the drive does not necessarily secure access to a lost recovery key and may lock the user out if done improperly Option B is incorrect because while backing up data is critical, it does not solve the issue of accessing a recovery key for BitLocker Option D is incorrect because changing the BitLocker password does not change or reset the recovery key 20.A user is setting up BitLocker on a new laptop and needs to choose how to back up their recovery key. Which option provides the safest backup method? A. Save the recovery key to a USB drive B. Store the recovery key in the cloud service provided by the laptop manufacturer C. Print the recovery key and store it in a secure location D. Send the recovery key to their email account Answer: C Explanation: Correct Answer. C. Print the recovery key and store it in a secure location Printing the recovery key and storing it securely (such as in a safe) protects against digital theft and ensures the user has physical access to the key when needed. Option A is incorrect because while a USB drive is a viable option, it can be lost or damaged, posing a risk of loss Option B is incorrect because relying solely on a manufacturer ’ s cloud service could be risky if the Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 10 / 13 service experiences downtime or data loss Option D is incorrect because email accounts can be compromised, making it a less secure method for storing sensitive recovery keys 21.A user reports that their computer is running slowly following a recent Windows update. What should a technician suggest first to troubleshoot the issue? A. Roll back the latest Windows update B. Check for and install any pending updates C. Perform a full system format D. Replace the user's computer with a newer model Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer. B. Check for and install any pending updates Sometimes, initial updates can cause system slowdowns due to incomplete installations or pending subsequent updates that might include bug fixes or improvements. Option A is incorrect because rolling back an update might remove important security patches and is not a first-line troubleshooting step Option C is incorrect because performing a full system format is too drastic for an initial troubleshooting step and can lead to data loss Option D is incorrect because replacing the computer should be a last resort and is not cost-effective based on the issue described 22.After updating an application, a user is unable to open it, and an error message indicates a missing file. What is the best course of action to resolve this application issue? A. Reinstall the application B. Delete the user profile associated with the application C. Ignore the error and reboot the computer D. Update the computer's BIOS Answer: A Explanation: Correct Answer. A. Reinstall the application Reinstalling the application can replace the missing file and correct any installation errors that occurred during the update process. Option B is incorrect because deleting the user profile does not guarantee that missing application files will be restored Option C is incorrect because simply ignoring the error does not address the underlying issue causing the application to fail to open Option D is incorrect because BIOS updates are unrelated to application-level errors and won ’ t solve a missing file problem 23.A user ’ s workstation fails to complete Windows updates, continuously looping on the “ Configuring updates ” screen. What is the most effective first step to troubleshoot this issue? A. Run the Windows Update Troubleshooter B. Clear the Windows Update download cache C. Disconnect the workstation from the network D. Manually download and install the updates Answer: A Explanation: Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 11 / 13 Correct Answer. A. Run the Windows Update Troubleshooter The Windows Update Troubleshooter is designed to automatically diagnose and fix common problems with Windows Update, which can resolve issues related to updates not installing correctly. Option B is incorrect as it might be a valid step but it is more technical and not the first step before using built-in troubleshooting tools Option C is incorrect because disconnecting from the network will not solve issues related to updates that have already been downloaded and are being configured Option D is incorrect because manually installing updates does not address potential underlying problems with the update process itself and is more complex for most users 24.A user reports that they are experiencing slow browser performance and frequent website errors. What is the most effective initial step to resolve these issues? A. Clear the browser cache and cookies B. Update the web browser to the latest version C. Restart the computer D. Reinstall the web browser Answer: A Explanation: Correct Answer. A. Clear the browser cache and cookies Clearing the browser cache and cookies can often resolve performance issues and errors related to data stored from previously visited websites, which might be corrupt or outdated. Option B is incorrect because while updating the browser is important, it does not immediately address potential problems caused by cached data Option C is incorrect because restarting the computer does not clear browser-specific cached data that could be causing the issues Option D is incorrect because reinstalling the browser is a more drastic step that should be considered only if simpler solutions do not resolve the problem 25.During an online banking session, a user notices that pages are loading incorrectly or displaying outdated information. What should they do first to try and fix this issue? A. Delete the browser history B. Clear the browser cache C. Change their online banking password D. Switch to a different Internet service provider Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer. B. Clear the browser cache Clearing the browser cache removes stored data that may prevent web pages from loading updated content correctly, which is essential for sites like online banking where information changes frequently. Option A is incorrect because deleting history affects only the list of visited sites and does not typically impact how web pages are loaded Option C is incorrect because changing a password does not affect how web pages are rendered or updated Option D is incorrect because switching ISPs is an extreme and largely irrelevant action for this type of issue 26.A user complains that a website is not displaying the latest updates even though the site ’ s Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 12 / 13 administrator confirms the updates were made. What should the user do first to ensure they are viewing the most current content? A. Refresh the page multiple times B. Clear the browser cache and refresh the page C. Update the operating system D. Contact the website's technical support Answer: B Explanation: Correct Answer. B. Clear the browser cache and refresh the page Clearing the browser cache followed by refreshing the page ensures that the user ’ s browser loads the most recent version of the web pages, reflecting the latest updates. Option A is incorrect because simply refreshing the page may not always load new content if the browser is pulling data from the cache Option C is incorrect because an operating system update is unlikely to impact how individual web pages are cached or displayed Option D is incorrect because the issue is likely related to local caching on the user ’ s browser, not a problem that the website ’ s support team can resolve 27.An IT support technician needs to map a shared drive using SMB protocol for users in a Windows environment so they can access departmental documents. What is the most important step to ensure all users have continuous access? A. Assign a static IP address to the server hosting the shared drive B. Schedule regular restarts of the server to ensure it does not hang C. Enable firewall exceptions for SMB on all user computers D. Encrypt the files stored on the shared drive Answer: A Explanation: Correct Answer. A. Assign a static IP address to the server hosting the shared drive Assigning a static IP address to the server ensures that the network path to the shared drive remains consistent, preventing disruptions in user access due to IP address changes typically associated with DHCP configurations. Option B is incorrect because regular restarts could disrupt access and are not a sustainable method for ensuring server reliability. Option C is incorrect because while necessary, enabling SMB firewall exceptions does not address potential disruptions caused by IP address changes. Option D is incorrect because file encryption, while enhancing security, does not ensure continuous access to the mapped drive. 28.A company is integrating Amazon S3 buckets for cloud storage and requires users to map these as a network drive on their local machines. Which tool should IT support recommend for seamless integration and mapping? A. AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) B. Amazon S3 File Gateway C. AWS Storage Gateway D. Amazon DataSync Answer: C Explanation: Pass Cisco 100-140 Exam | Latest 100-140 Dumps & Practice Exams - Cert007 13 / 13 Correct Answer. C. AWS Storage Gateway AWS Storage Gateway allows for the seamless integration of Amazon S3 buckets with on-premises environments by enabling users to connect and map cloud storage as a network drive. This facilitates straightforward access to cloud storage using familiar file-based interfaces. Option A is incorrect because the AWS CLI is powerful for management tasks but does not facilitate the mapping of S3 buckets as network drives. Option B is incorrect because while it could potentially be used for a similar function, S3 File Gateway is not as comprehensive in integrating S3 with on-premises file systems compared to Storage Gateway. Option D is incorrect because Amazon DataSync is primarily used for data transfer between on-premises storage and AWS and does not support direct mapping as a network drive. 29.When mapping a shared drive in a mixed environment of Windows and macOS users, what is a crucial consideration to ensure all users can access files consistently? A. Formatting the shared drive using NTFS B. Ensuring all filenames are case-sensitive C. Using a cross-platform compatible file system like exFAT D. Configuring different drive letters for Windows and path volumes for macOS Answer: C Explanation: Correct Answer. C. Using a cross-platform compatible file system like exFAT Using a file system that is compatible with both Windows and macOS, such as exFAT, ensures that all users, regardless of their operating system, can read and write to the shared drive without issues related to file system compatibility. Option A is incorrect because NTFS may not be fully compatible with macOS, especially for writing files without additional software. Option B is incorrect because while case sensitivity can be an issue, it does not address the fundamental file system compatibility. Option D is incorrect because while necessary for individual system navigation, it does not address the underlying file system compatibility issues.